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In Parshas Chukas, why is first mention of Parah Adumah “פָרָה” instead of “פָּרָה”?

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2

The first mention of the Parah Adumah in Parshas Chukas (Numbers 19:2) is:

דַּבֵּ֣ר אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֗ל וְיִקְח֣וּ אֵלֶיךָ֩ פָרָ֨ה אֲדֻמָּ֜ה

Instruct the people of Israel to bring you a red cow without blemish

There "פָרָה" is without a dagesh (dot inside) and is pronounced with an "F" sound- "farrah."

However, in describing the rest of the procedure the Torah uses "פָּרָה" with a dagesh, pronounced as "parah" with a hard "P" sound (see 19:5, 19:6 19:9, 19:10)

Question:

Why is the first mention of the Parah Adumah "פָרָה" instead of "פָּרָה"?

grammar-dikduk vowels-nekudot chukas parah-adumah

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edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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alichtalicht

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2

The first mention of the Parah Adumah in Parshas Chukas (Numbers 19:2) is:

דַּבֵּ֣ר אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֗ל וְיִקְח֣וּ אֵלֶיךָ֩ פָרָ֨ה אֲדֻמָּ֜ה

Instruct the people of Israel to bring you a red cow without blemish

There "פָרָה" is without a dagesh (dot inside) and is pronounced with an "F" sound- "farrah."

However, in describing the rest of the procedure the Torah uses "פָּרָה" with a dagesh, pronounced as "parah" with a hard "P" sound (see 19:5, 19:6 19:9, 19:10)

Question:

Why is the first mention of the Parah Adumah "פָרָה" instead of "פָּרָה"?

grammar-dikduk vowels-nekudot chukas parah-adumah

share|improve this question

edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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asked 8 hours ago

alichtalicht

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add a comment | 

The first mention of the Parah Adumah in Parshas Chukas (Numbers 19:2) is:

דַּבֵּ֣ר אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֗ל וְיִקְח֣וּ אֵלֶיךָ֩ פָרָ֨ה אֲדֻמָּ֜ה

Instruct the people of Israel to bring you a red cow without blemish

There "פָרָה" is without a dagesh (dot inside) and is pronounced with an "F" sound- "farrah."

However, in describing the rest of the procedure the Torah uses "פָּרָה" with a dagesh, pronounced as "parah" with a hard "P" sound (see 19:5, 19:6 19:9, 19:10)

Question:

Why is the first mention of the Parah Adumah "פָרָה" instead of "פָּרָה"?

grammar-dikduk vowels-nekudot chukas parah-adumah

share|improve this question

edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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asked 8 hours ago

alichtalicht

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share|improve this question

edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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asked 8 hours ago

alichtalicht

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share|improve this question

edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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asked 8 hours ago

alichtalicht

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edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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edited 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦

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asked 8 hours ago

alichtalicht

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asked 8 hours ago

alichtalicht

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1 Answer
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6

Generally, when a word ends in a vowel sound, without a pausal cantillation note on that word, the first letter in the next word loses its dagesh. Usually, the rule is stated in terms of the previous word ending with one of the letters אהוי, but here, it seems to be operating on the previous word's last consonant being succeeded in pronunciation by a vowel. It's probably smoother to pronounce a fricative (non-dagesh) consonant right after a vowel sound than a harder consonant.

Source: High school Biblical grammar class. These rules are written up in books, but none of those books are ultimately the source for the rules, as they're all based ultimately on observing patterns in the Torah itself.

share|improve this answer

edited 8 hours ago

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

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• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This isn't the first time on this site someone has had to explain basic biblical begedkefet rules. Do we really need a new question for every word? Is there not a sufficient duplicate already? Or can we make a sufficiently canonical one?
  
  – Double AA♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DoubleAA If there's another question that is an instance of the same אהוי rule, I think it would be fair to dupe them.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I wish all day schools had a high school Biblical grammar class!
  
  – Heshy
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @Heshy, Actually, it was a happy accident of circumstance. My state mandated two years of foreign language class, which my (very small) school fulfilled with Modern Hebrew. Before my second year, the teacher they had lined up for this class quit, so, in a pinch, the principal / rabbi taught the class instead. He was interested in dikduk, so we spent the year pretty much learning the dikduk comments in Rashi.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DoubleAA OTOH, this one is an אהוי question without the [apparent] presence of אהוי, so it's a little special. I guess it would be helpful to have a question asking "In the Torah, when does the first letter of a word get a dagesh, and when doesn't it?" A comprehensive-enough answer to that would probably be short of book-length and could be a helpful dupe-target.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 5 more comments

6

Generally, when a word ends in a vowel sound, without a pausal cantillation note on that word, the first letter in the next word loses its dagesh. Usually, the rule is stated in terms of the previous word ending with one of the letters אהוי, but here, it seems to be operating on the previous word's last consonant being succeeded in pronunciation by a vowel. It's probably smoother to pronounce a fricative (non-dagesh) consonant right after a vowel sound than a harder consonant.

Source: High school Biblical grammar class. These rules are written up in books, but none of those books are ultimately the source for the rules, as they're all based ultimately on observing patterns in the Torah itself.

share|improve this answer

edited 8 hours ago

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

32k1212 gold badges8989 silver badges278278 bronze badges

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This isn't the first time on this site someone has had to explain basic biblical begedkefet rules. Do we really need a new question for every word? Is there not a sufficient duplicate already? Or can we make a sufficiently canonical one?
  
  – Double AA♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DoubleAA If there's another question that is an instance of the same אהוי rule, I think it would be fair to dupe them.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I wish all day schools had a high school Biblical grammar class!
  
  – Heshy
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @Heshy, Actually, it was a happy accident of circumstance. My state mandated two years of foreign language class, which my (very small) school fulfilled with Modern Hebrew. Before my second year, the teacher they had lined up for this class quit, so, in a pinch, the principal / rabbi taught the class instead. He was interested in dikduk, so we spent the year pretty much learning the dikduk comments in Rashi.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DoubleAA OTOH, this one is an אהוי question without the [apparent] presence of אהוי, so it's a little special. I guess it would be helpful to have a question asking "In the Torah, when does the first letter of a word get a dagesh, and when doesn't it?" A comprehensive-enough answer to that would probably be short of book-length and could be a helpful dupe-target.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 5 more comments

6

Generally, when a word ends in a vowel sound, without a pausal cantillation note on that word, the first letter in the next word loses its dagesh. Usually, the rule is stated in terms of the previous word ending with one of the letters אהוי, but here, it seems to be operating on the previous word's last consonant being succeeded in pronunciation by a vowel. It's probably smoother to pronounce a fricative (non-dagesh) consonant right after a vowel sound than a harder consonant.

Source: High school Biblical grammar class. These rules are written up in books, but none of those books are ultimately the source for the rules, as they're all based ultimately on observing patterns in the Torah itself.

share|improve this answer

edited 8 hours ago

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

32k1212 gold badges8989 silver badges278278 bronze badges

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This isn't the first time on this site someone has had to explain basic biblical begedkefet rules. Do we really need a new question for every word? Is there not a sufficient duplicate already? Or can we make a sufficiently canonical one?
  
  – Double AA♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DoubleAA If there's another question that is an instance of the same אהוי rule, I think it would be fair to dupe them.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I wish all day schools had a high school Biblical grammar class!
  
  – Heshy
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @Heshy, Actually, it was a happy accident of circumstance. My state mandated two years of foreign language class, which my (very small) school fulfilled with Modern Hebrew. Before my second year, the teacher they had lined up for this class quit, so, in a pinch, the principal / rabbi taught the class instead. He was interested in dikduk, so we spent the year pretty much learning the dikduk comments in Rashi.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  2
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DoubleAA OTOH, this one is an אהוי question without the [apparent] presence of אהוי, so it's a little special. I guess it would be helpful to have a question asking "In the Torah, when does the first letter of a word get a dagesh, and when doesn't it?" A comprehensive-enough answer to that would probably be short of book-length and could be a helpful dupe-target.
  
  – Isaac Moses♦
  8 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 5 more comments

Generally, when a word ends in a vowel sound, without a pausal cantillation note on that word, the first letter in the next word loses its dagesh. Usually, the rule is stated in terms of the previous word ending with one of the letters אהוי, but here, it seems to be operating on the previous word's last consonant being succeeded in pronunciation by a vowel. It's probably smoother to pronounce a fricative (non-dagesh) consonant right after a vowel sound than a harder consonant.

Source: High school Biblical grammar class. These rules are written up in books, but none of those books are ultimately the source for the rules, as they're all based ultimately on observing patterns in the Torah itself.

share|improve this answer

edited 8 hours ago

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

32k1212 gold badges8989 silver badges278278 bronze badges

share|improve this answer

edited 8 hours ago

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

32k1212 gold badges8989 silver badges278278 bronze badges

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

32k1212 gold badges8989 silver badges278278 bronze badges

answered 8 hours ago

Isaac Moses♦Isaac Moses

32k1212 gold badges8989 silver badges278278 bronze badges