Domain of definition of Laplace Operator on L^2How to construct a scalar differential operator having the same spectrum as a non-scalar differential operator exploiting symmetries?Why is this operator compact?Stokes operator without Dirichlet boundary conditionDomain of $A^1/2$ on $L^2(mathbbT^2)$Characterisation of Sobolev spaces using eigenvalues of laplacianThe inverse of Laplacian operator for different ordersDomain of the Stokes operatorDistribution that vanishes against approximated delta is zero$(ipartial_t)^frac12 e^itDelta f = (-Delta )^frac12 e^itDelta f$?One-parameter unitary group preserving invariant domain of infinitesimal generator
Domain of definition of Laplace Operator on L^2
How to construct a scalar differential operator having the same spectrum as a non-scalar differential operator exploiting symmetries?Why is this operator compact?Stokes operator without Dirichlet boundary conditionDomain of $A^1/2$ on $L^2(mathbbT^2)$Characterisation of Sobolev spaces using eigenvalues of laplacianThe inverse of Laplacian operator for different ordersDomain of the Stokes operatorDistribution that vanishes against approximated delta is zero$(ipartial_t)^frac12 e^itDelta f = (-Delta )^frac12 e^itDelta f$?One-parameter unitary group preserving invariant domain of infinitesimal generator
$begingroup$
I'm trying to combine two ways of looking at the Laplacian $Delta$ on $mathbb R^n$ (and on other domains).
Firstly, it is well known that this operator is essentially self-adjoint on $C_c^infty(mathbb R^n)$. Secondly, I know that for $f,g in C^infty_c(mathbb R^n)$ it holds that $langle u, Delta u rangle = langle nabla u, nabla v rangle $, where the inner-product is the $L^2$ one.
Now the domain $mathcal D (Delta) subset L^2$ on which the Laplacian is self-adjoint must contain $C_c^infty (mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find much more information on this. By the previous identity I feel like $Delta u in L^2$ should imply that $u in H^1(mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find a way to prove this. I know it is possible to prove that $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^2(mathbb R^n$) via elliptic regularity etc, but it seems to me like there "should" be an elementary argument for showing $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ (preferably via the non-Fourier-transform characterisation of weak derivatives) but I can't seem to find it anywhere.
Edit: To clarify my question: I am looking for a simple proof of $Delta u = f in L^2$ implies $u in H^1$ where $Delta u$ is defined as the self-adjoint extension of the Laplacian $Delta$ on $C^infty_c$, preferrably one which also works on domains other than $mathbb R^n$.
fa.functional-analysis ap.analysis-of-pdes
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to combine two ways of looking at the Laplacian $Delta$ on $mathbb R^n$ (and on other domains).
Firstly, it is well known that this operator is essentially self-adjoint on $C_c^infty(mathbb R^n)$. Secondly, I know that for $f,g in C^infty_c(mathbb R^n)$ it holds that $langle u, Delta u rangle = langle nabla u, nabla v rangle $, where the inner-product is the $L^2$ one.
Now the domain $mathcal D (Delta) subset L^2$ on which the Laplacian is self-adjoint must contain $C_c^infty (mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find much more information on this. By the previous identity I feel like $Delta u in L^2$ should imply that $u in H^1(mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find a way to prove this. I know it is possible to prove that $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^2(mathbb R^n$) via elliptic regularity etc, but it seems to me like there "should" be an elementary argument for showing $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ (preferably via the non-Fourier-transform characterisation of weak derivatives) but I can't seem to find it anywhere.
Edit: To clarify my question: I am looking for a simple proof of $Delta u = f in L^2$ implies $u in H^1$ where $Delta u$ is defined as the self-adjoint extension of the Laplacian $Delta$ on $C^infty_c$, preferrably one which also works on domains other than $mathbb R^n$.
fa.functional-analysis ap.analysis-of-pdes
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Are you familiar with the Friedrichs extension theorem?
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
I am not, but this seems like it would apply, thank you for the reference!
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
You want to state the question a little differently for other domains $Omega$, because the Laplacian is typically not essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(Omega)$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
2 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to combine two ways of looking at the Laplacian $Delta$ on $mathbb R^n$ (and on other domains).
Firstly, it is well known that this operator is essentially self-adjoint on $C_c^infty(mathbb R^n)$. Secondly, I know that for $f,g in C^infty_c(mathbb R^n)$ it holds that $langle u, Delta u rangle = langle nabla u, nabla v rangle $, where the inner-product is the $L^2$ one.
Now the domain $mathcal D (Delta) subset L^2$ on which the Laplacian is self-adjoint must contain $C_c^infty (mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find much more information on this. By the previous identity I feel like $Delta u in L^2$ should imply that $u in H^1(mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find a way to prove this. I know it is possible to prove that $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^2(mathbb R^n$) via elliptic regularity etc, but it seems to me like there "should" be an elementary argument for showing $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ (preferably via the non-Fourier-transform characterisation of weak derivatives) but I can't seem to find it anywhere.
Edit: To clarify my question: I am looking for a simple proof of $Delta u = f in L^2$ implies $u in H^1$ where $Delta u$ is defined as the self-adjoint extension of the Laplacian $Delta$ on $C^infty_c$, preferrably one which also works on domains other than $mathbb R^n$.
fa.functional-analysis ap.analysis-of-pdes
$endgroup$
I'm trying to combine two ways of looking at the Laplacian $Delta$ on $mathbb R^n$ (and on other domains).
Firstly, it is well known that this operator is essentially self-adjoint on $C_c^infty(mathbb R^n)$. Secondly, I know that for $f,g in C^infty_c(mathbb R^n)$ it holds that $langle u, Delta u rangle = langle nabla u, nabla v rangle $, where the inner-product is the $L^2$ one.
Now the domain $mathcal D (Delta) subset L^2$ on which the Laplacian is self-adjoint must contain $C_c^infty (mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find much more information on this. By the previous identity I feel like $Delta u in L^2$ should imply that $u in H^1(mathbb R^n)$, but I can't seem to find a way to prove this. I know it is possible to prove that $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^2(mathbb R^n$) via elliptic regularity etc, but it seems to me like there "should" be an elementary argument for showing $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ (preferably via the non-Fourier-transform characterisation of weak derivatives) but I can't seem to find it anywhere.
Edit: To clarify my question: I am looking for a simple proof of $Delta u = f in L^2$ implies $u in H^1$ where $Delta u$ is defined as the self-adjoint extension of the Laplacian $Delta$ on $C^infty_c$, preferrably one which also works on domains other than $mathbb R^n$.
fa.functional-analysis ap.analysis-of-pdes
fa.functional-analysis ap.analysis-of-pdes
edited 9 hours ago
Nathanael Schilling
asked 11 hours ago
Nathanael SchillingNathanael Schilling
214 bronze badges
214 bronze badges
1
$begingroup$
Are you familiar with the Friedrichs extension theorem?
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
I am not, but this seems like it would apply, thank you for the reference!
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
You want to state the question a little differently for other domains $Omega$, because the Laplacian is typically not essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(Omega)$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
2 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Are you familiar with the Friedrichs extension theorem?
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
I am not, but this seems like it would apply, thank you for the reference!
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
You want to state the question a little differently for other domains $Omega$, because the Laplacian is typically not essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(Omega)$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
2 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Are you familiar with the Friedrichs extension theorem?
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Are you familiar with the Friedrichs extension theorem?
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
I am not, but this seems like it would apply, thank you for the reference!
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
I am not, but this seems like it would apply, thank you for the reference!
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
You want to state the question a little differently for other domains $Omega$, because the Laplacian is typically not essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(Omega)$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
You want to state the question a little differently for other domains $Omega$, because the Laplacian is typically not essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(Omega)$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– Nate Eldredge
2 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The Laplace operator is essentially self-adjoint: define
$$
mathcal D(∆)=uin L^2, ∆uin L^2=H^2.
$$
Then for $u,vin mathcal D(∆)$, $langle ∆ u,vrangle=langle u,∆vrangle$: to prove this, consider $lim u_k=u, lim v_k=v text in $H^2$$ with $u_k, v_k$ smooth compactly supported. Then you have
$$
langle ∆ u,vrangle=lim_klangle ∆ u,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle ∆ u_l,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle u_l,∆v_krangle=lim_klangle u,∆v_krangle=langle u,∆vrangle, textqed.
$$
Moreover you define for the symmetric operator $∆$,
$$
mathcal D(∆^*)=vin L^2,exists C, forall uin mathcal D(∆),
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2.
$$
Then as for all symmetric operators we have $mathcal D(∆^*)supset mathcal D(∆)$. To get self-adjointness, you must prove $mathcal D(∆^*)subset mathcal D(∆)$. Let $vin mathcal D(∆^*)$. Let $u$ be a smooth compactly supported function: then we have
$$
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2, quad texti.e. quad
vertlangle u,∆vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2,
$$
proving that $∆ vin L^2$ and since $vin L^2$, the ellipticity of the Laplace operator implies that $uin H^2=mathcal D(∆)$. The above argument works for any symmetric elliptic operator.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
$endgroup$
– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Maybe this is the argument you're looking for.
Suppose you know that $Delta$ is essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(mathbbR^n)$. This means $C^infty_c$ is a core for $Delta$, so for any $u in D(Delta)$, there is a sequence $u_n in C^infty_c$ such that $u_n to u$ and $Delta u_n to Delta u$ in $L^2$. In particular, we have
$$|langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle_L^2 | le |Delta u_n - Delta u_m|_L^2 |u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$$
using Cauchy-Schwarz. On the other hand, since $u_n, u_m in C^infty_c$, we are perfectly justified in integrating by parts to say that $langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle = |nabla (u_n - u_m)|^2_L^2$. So, since $|u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$ and $|nabla (u_n - u_m)|_L^2 to 0$, we have shown that $|u_n - u_m|_H^1 to 0$; in other words, $u_n$ is Cauchy in $H^1$. Now $H^1$ is a Hilbert space, so $u_n$ converges in $H^1$ to some $v in H^1$. But we already know $u_n to u$ in $L^2$, which is weaker than $H^1$ convergence, so we must have $u = v$, thus $u in H^1$.
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
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votes
$begingroup$
The Laplace operator is essentially self-adjoint: define
$$
mathcal D(∆)=uin L^2, ∆uin L^2=H^2.
$$
Then for $u,vin mathcal D(∆)$, $langle ∆ u,vrangle=langle u,∆vrangle$: to prove this, consider $lim u_k=u, lim v_k=v text in $H^2$$ with $u_k, v_k$ smooth compactly supported. Then you have
$$
langle ∆ u,vrangle=lim_klangle ∆ u,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle ∆ u_l,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle u_l,∆v_krangle=lim_klangle u,∆v_krangle=langle u,∆vrangle, textqed.
$$
Moreover you define for the symmetric operator $∆$,
$$
mathcal D(∆^*)=vin L^2,exists C, forall uin mathcal D(∆),
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2.
$$
Then as for all symmetric operators we have $mathcal D(∆^*)supset mathcal D(∆)$. To get self-adjointness, you must prove $mathcal D(∆^*)subset mathcal D(∆)$. Let $vin mathcal D(∆^*)$. Let $u$ be a smooth compactly supported function: then we have
$$
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2, quad texti.e. quad
vertlangle u,∆vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2,
$$
proving that $∆ vin L^2$ and since $vin L^2$, the ellipticity of the Laplace operator implies that $uin H^2=mathcal D(∆)$. The above argument works for any symmetric elliptic operator.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
$endgroup$
– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Laplace operator is essentially self-adjoint: define
$$
mathcal D(∆)=uin L^2, ∆uin L^2=H^2.
$$
Then for $u,vin mathcal D(∆)$, $langle ∆ u,vrangle=langle u,∆vrangle$: to prove this, consider $lim u_k=u, lim v_k=v text in $H^2$$ with $u_k, v_k$ smooth compactly supported. Then you have
$$
langle ∆ u,vrangle=lim_klangle ∆ u,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle ∆ u_l,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle u_l,∆v_krangle=lim_klangle u,∆v_krangle=langle u,∆vrangle, textqed.
$$
Moreover you define for the symmetric operator $∆$,
$$
mathcal D(∆^*)=vin L^2,exists C, forall uin mathcal D(∆),
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2.
$$
Then as for all symmetric operators we have $mathcal D(∆^*)supset mathcal D(∆)$. To get self-adjointness, you must prove $mathcal D(∆^*)subset mathcal D(∆)$. Let $vin mathcal D(∆^*)$. Let $u$ be a smooth compactly supported function: then we have
$$
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2, quad texti.e. quad
vertlangle u,∆vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2,
$$
proving that $∆ vin L^2$ and since $vin L^2$, the ellipticity of the Laplace operator implies that $uin H^2=mathcal D(∆)$. The above argument works for any symmetric elliptic operator.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
$endgroup$
– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Laplace operator is essentially self-adjoint: define
$$
mathcal D(∆)=uin L^2, ∆uin L^2=H^2.
$$
Then for $u,vin mathcal D(∆)$, $langle ∆ u,vrangle=langle u,∆vrangle$: to prove this, consider $lim u_k=u, lim v_k=v text in $H^2$$ with $u_k, v_k$ smooth compactly supported. Then you have
$$
langle ∆ u,vrangle=lim_klangle ∆ u,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle ∆ u_l,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle u_l,∆v_krangle=lim_klangle u,∆v_krangle=langle u,∆vrangle, textqed.
$$
Moreover you define for the symmetric operator $∆$,
$$
mathcal D(∆^*)=vin L^2,exists C, forall uin mathcal D(∆),
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2.
$$
Then as for all symmetric operators we have $mathcal D(∆^*)supset mathcal D(∆)$. To get self-adjointness, you must prove $mathcal D(∆^*)subset mathcal D(∆)$. Let $vin mathcal D(∆^*)$. Let $u$ be a smooth compactly supported function: then we have
$$
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2, quad texti.e. quad
vertlangle u,∆vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2,
$$
proving that $∆ vin L^2$ and since $vin L^2$, the ellipticity of the Laplace operator implies that $uin H^2=mathcal D(∆)$. The above argument works for any symmetric elliptic operator.
$endgroup$
The Laplace operator is essentially self-adjoint: define
$$
mathcal D(∆)=uin L^2, ∆uin L^2=H^2.
$$
Then for $u,vin mathcal D(∆)$, $langle ∆ u,vrangle=langle u,∆vrangle$: to prove this, consider $lim u_k=u, lim v_k=v text in $H^2$$ with $u_k, v_k$ smooth compactly supported. Then you have
$$
langle ∆ u,vrangle=lim_klangle ∆ u,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle ∆ u_l,v_krangle=lim_klim_llangle u_l,∆v_krangle=lim_klangle u,∆v_krangle=langle u,∆vrangle, textqed.
$$
Moreover you define for the symmetric operator $∆$,
$$
mathcal D(∆^*)=vin L^2,exists C, forall uin mathcal D(∆),
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2.
$$
Then as for all symmetric operators we have $mathcal D(∆^*)supset mathcal D(∆)$. To get self-adjointness, you must prove $mathcal D(∆^*)subset mathcal D(∆)$. Let $vin mathcal D(∆^*)$. Let $u$ be a smooth compactly supported function: then we have
$$
vertlangle ∆u,vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2, quad texti.e. quad
vertlangle u,∆vranglevertle CVert uVert_L^2,
$$
proving that $∆ vin L^2$ and since $vin L^2$, the ellipticity of the Laplace operator implies that $uin H^2=mathcal D(∆)$. The above argument works for any symmetric elliptic operator.
answered 10 hours ago
BazinBazin
8,75915 silver badges39 bronze badges
8,75915 silver badges39 bronze badges
$begingroup$
I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
$endgroup$
– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
$endgroup$
– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
$endgroup$
– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
$endgroup$
– paul garrett
4 hours ago
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I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
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– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
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I know the Laplacian is essentially self-adjoint, I was maybe a bit unclear but my question was why its domain of definition is a subset of $H^1$, not why the operator is essentially self-adjoint. The definition of $H^2$ you give isn't the standard one (existence of all weak partial derivatives of order 1 and 2 in $L^2$), I would like to know why $mathcal D(Delta) subset H^1$ with the standard definition.
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– Nathanael Schilling
10 hours ago
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Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
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– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
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Maybe you might ask yourself what the relation of $H^2$ and $H^1$ is.
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– Fabian Wirth
10 hours ago
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I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
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– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
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I think I misunderstood the post above in that I thought it was a definition for $H^2$, whereas the definition was for $mathcal D(Delta)$ in terms of $H^2$. Nevertheless, my question still stands as the point I was asking about is contained in the reference to the ellipticity of the Laplace operator; which is nontrivial on general domains as far as I remember. This is why I would like a simple proof of the weaker statement that the domain is contained in $H^1$.
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– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
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– paul garrett
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
In this situation, essential self-adjointness is exactly that the domain of the unique self-adjoint extension is $H^2$. (More generally, for semi-bounded operators, we can define analogous $H^2$, Friedrichs' extensions, and so on.)
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– paul garrett
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Maybe this is the argument you're looking for.
Suppose you know that $Delta$ is essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(mathbbR^n)$. This means $C^infty_c$ is a core for $Delta$, so for any $u in D(Delta)$, there is a sequence $u_n in C^infty_c$ such that $u_n to u$ and $Delta u_n to Delta u$ in $L^2$. In particular, we have
$$|langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle_L^2 | le |Delta u_n - Delta u_m|_L^2 |u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$$
using Cauchy-Schwarz. On the other hand, since $u_n, u_m in C^infty_c$, we are perfectly justified in integrating by parts to say that $langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle = |nabla (u_n - u_m)|^2_L^2$. So, since $|u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$ and $|nabla (u_n - u_m)|_L^2 to 0$, we have shown that $|u_n - u_m|_H^1 to 0$; in other words, $u_n$ is Cauchy in $H^1$. Now $H^1$ is a Hilbert space, so $u_n$ converges in $H^1$ to some $v in H^1$. But we already know $u_n to u$ in $L^2$, which is weaker than $H^1$ convergence, so we must have $u = v$, thus $u in H^1$.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Maybe this is the argument you're looking for.
Suppose you know that $Delta$ is essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(mathbbR^n)$. This means $C^infty_c$ is a core for $Delta$, so for any $u in D(Delta)$, there is a sequence $u_n in C^infty_c$ such that $u_n to u$ and $Delta u_n to Delta u$ in $L^2$. In particular, we have
$$|langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle_L^2 | le |Delta u_n - Delta u_m|_L^2 |u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$$
using Cauchy-Schwarz. On the other hand, since $u_n, u_m in C^infty_c$, we are perfectly justified in integrating by parts to say that $langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle = |nabla (u_n - u_m)|^2_L^2$. So, since $|u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$ and $|nabla (u_n - u_m)|_L^2 to 0$, we have shown that $|u_n - u_m|_H^1 to 0$; in other words, $u_n$ is Cauchy in $H^1$. Now $H^1$ is a Hilbert space, so $u_n$ converges in $H^1$ to some $v in H^1$. But we already know $u_n to u$ in $L^2$, which is weaker than $H^1$ convergence, so we must have $u = v$, thus $u in H^1$.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Maybe this is the argument you're looking for.
Suppose you know that $Delta$ is essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(mathbbR^n)$. This means $C^infty_c$ is a core for $Delta$, so for any $u in D(Delta)$, there is a sequence $u_n in C^infty_c$ such that $u_n to u$ and $Delta u_n to Delta u$ in $L^2$. In particular, we have
$$|langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle_L^2 | le |Delta u_n - Delta u_m|_L^2 |u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$$
using Cauchy-Schwarz. On the other hand, since $u_n, u_m in C^infty_c$, we are perfectly justified in integrating by parts to say that $langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle = |nabla (u_n - u_m)|^2_L^2$. So, since $|u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$ and $|nabla (u_n - u_m)|_L^2 to 0$, we have shown that $|u_n - u_m|_H^1 to 0$; in other words, $u_n$ is Cauchy in $H^1$. Now $H^1$ is a Hilbert space, so $u_n$ converges in $H^1$ to some $v in H^1$. But we already know $u_n to u$ in $L^2$, which is weaker than $H^1$ convergence, so we must have $u = v$, thus $u in H^1$.
$endgroup$
Maybe this is the argument you're looking for.
Suppose you know that $Delta$ is essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(mathbbR^n)$. This means $C^infty_c$ is a core for $Delta$, so for any $u in D(Delta)$, there is a sequence $u_n in C^infty_c$ such that $u_n to u$ and $Delta u_n to Delta u$ in $L^2$. In particular, we have
$$|langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle_L^2 | le |Delta u_n - Delta u_m|_L^2 |u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$$
using Cauchy-Schwarz. On the other hand, since $u_n, u_m in C^infty_c$, we are perfectly justified in integrating by parts to say that $langle Delta(u_n - u_m), u_n - u_m rangle = |nabla (u_n - u_m)|^2_L^2$. So, since $|u_n - u_m|_L^2 to 0$ and $|nabla (u_n - u_m)|_L^2 to 0$, we have shown that $|u_n - u_m|_H^1 to 0$; in other words, $u_n$ is Cauchy in $H^1$. Now $H^1$ is a Hilbert space, so $u_n$ converges in $H^1$ to some $v in H^1$. But we already know $u_n to u$ in $L^2$, which is weaker than $H^1$ convergence, so we must have $u = v$, thus $u in H^1$.
answered 3 hours ago
Nate EldredgeNate Eldredge
20.9k3 gold badges74 silver badges119 bronze badges
20.9k3 gold badges74 silver badges119 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Are you familiar with the Friedrichs extension theorem?
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– Nate Eldredge
9 hours ago
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I am not, but this seems like it would apply, thank you for the reference!
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– Nathanael Schilling
9 hours ago
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You want to state the question a little differently for other domains $Omega$, because the Laplacian is typically not essentially self-adjoint on $C^infty_c(Omega)$ in that case.
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– Nate Eldredge
2 hours ago