Is it possible to express disjunction through conjunction and implication?

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Is it possible to express disjunction through conjunction and implication?














4












$begingroup$


This question is about Boolean functions. Is it possible to express disjunction $xlor y$ through conjunction $xland y$ (or simply $xy$) and implication $xto y$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    It should, since negation is expressable with implications
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @miraunpajaro Negation expressable with implications? How?
    $endgroup$
    – jjagmath
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I seem to remember implication and conjunction was functionally complete, I can't figure it out now though
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Implication and conjunction are not functionally complete since they both map 1 (truth) into 1. Negation is expressible though implication as $xto 0$, but one needs falsehood for this. The formula in the accepted answer just slipped my mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Evgeny Makarov
    5 hours ago















4












$begingroup$


This question is about Boolean functions. Is it possible to express disjunction $xlor y$ through conjunction $xland y$ (or simply $xy$) and implication $xto y$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    It should, since negation is expressable with implications
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @miraunpajaro Negation expressable with implications? How?
    $endgroup$
    – jjagmath
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I seem to remember implication and conjunction was functionally complete, I can't figure it out now though
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Implication and conjunction are not functionally complete since they both map 1 (truth) into 1. Negation is expressible though implication as $xto 0$, but one needs falsehood for this. The formula in the accepted answer just slipped my mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Evgeny Makarov
    5 hours ago













4












4








4





$begingroup$


This question is about Boolean functions. Is it possible to express disjunction $xlor y$ through conjunction $xland y$ (or simply $xy$) and implication $xto y$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




This question is about Boolean functions. Is it possible to express disjunction $xlor y$ through conjunction $xland y$ (or simply $xy$) and implication $xto y$?







boolean-algebra






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 9 hours ago









Evgeny MakarovEvgeny Makarov

363




363











  • $begingroup$
    It should, since negation is expressable with implications
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @miraunpajaro Negation expressable with implications? How?
    $endgroup$
    – jjagmath
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I seem to remember implication and conjunction was functionally complete, I can't figure it out now though
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Implication and conjunction are not functionally complete since they both map 1 (truth) into 1. Negation is expressible though implication as $xto 0$, but one needs falsehood for this. The formula in the accepted answer just slipped my mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Evgeny Makarov
    5 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    It should, since negation is expressable with implications
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @miraunpajaro Negation expressable with implications? How?
    $endgroup$
    – jjagmath
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I seem to remember implication and conjunction was functionally complete, I can't figure it out now though
    $endgroup$
    – miraunpajaro
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Implication and conjunction are not functionally complete since they both map 1 (truth) into 1. Negation is expressible though implication as $xto 0$, but one needs falsehood for this. The formula in the accepted answer just slipped my mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Evgeny Makarov
    5 hours ago















$begingroup$
It should, since negation is expressable with implications
$endgroup$
– miraunpajaro
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
It should, since negation is expressable with implications
$endgroup$
– miraunpajaro
9 hours ago












$begingroup$
@miraunpajaro Negation expressable with implications? How?
$endgroup$
– jjagmath
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
@miraunpajaro Negation expressable with implications? How?
$endgroup$
– jjagmath
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
I seem to remember implication and conjunction was functionally complete, I can't figure it out now though
$endgroup$
– miraunpajaro
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
I seem to remember implication and conjunction was functionally complete, I can't figure it out now though
$endgroup$
– miraunpajaro
7 hours ago












$begingroup$
Implication and conjunction are not functionally complete since they both map 1 (truth) into 1. Negation is expressible though implication as $xto 0$, but one needs falsehood for this. The formula in the accepted answer just slipped my mind.
$endgroup$
– Evgeny Makarov
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
Implication and conjunction are not functionally complete since they both map 1 (truth) into 1. Negation is expressible though implication as $xto 0$, but one needs falsehood for this. The formula in the accepted answer just slipped my mind.
$endgroup$
– Evgeny Makarov
5 hours ago










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Yes - in fact, disjunction is expressible via implication alone:
$$
x lor y equiv (x to y) to y
$$






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    6












    $begingroup$

    Yes - in fact, disjunction is expressible via implication alone:
    $$
    x lor y equiv (x to y) to y
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      6












      $begingroup$

      Yes - in fact, disjunction is expressible via implication alone:
      $$
      x lor y equiv (x to y) to y
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        6












        6








        6





        $begingroup$

        Yes - in fact, disjunction is expressible via implication alone:
        $$
        x lor y equiv (x to y) to y
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes - in fact, disjunction is expressible via implication alone:
        $$
        x lor y equiv (x to y) to y
        $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 9 hours ago









        AdrianoAdriano

        36.7k33371




        36.7k33371



























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