Why when the leprosy covers the entire body the leper is pronounced pure?Cutting body and pagan tattoos forbidden in Leviticus 19, what pagan group?Why was there a Sabbath year?Why were shell fish used in coloring the things of the Tabernacle?Why does the “Fat” belong to the Lord?In Leviticus 14:8-9 when is a person considered ceremonially clean?In Leviticus 13:45, does the leper call out “unclean, unclean”, or is this his label?Why doesn't the penalty in Leviticus 21:9 apply equally?Why is “I am the Lord” repeated in Leviticus?Did Peter cut off the slave's ear to disqualify him as a priest (John 18:10)?Why does cursing get the death penalty?
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Why when the leprosy covers the entire body the leper is pronounced pure?
Cutting body and pagan tattoos forbidden in Leviticus 19, what pagan group?Why was there a Sabbath year?Why were shell fish used in coloring the things of the Tabernacle?Why does the “Fat” belong to the Lord?In Leviticus 14:8-9 when is a person considered ceremonially clean?In Leviticus 13:45, does the leper call out “unclean, unclean”, or is this his label?Why doesn't the penalty in Leviticus 21:9 apply equally?Why is “I am the Lord” repeated in Leviticus?Did Peter cut off the slave's ear to disqualify him as a priest (John 18:10)?Why does cursing get the death penalty?
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In Leviticus chapter 13 we read all the regulations with regards to how to determine if a skin condition is leprousy and how to deal with someone who is affected. I always thought that the condition of leprousy in the OT is a picture of sin. Therefore I don't understand why in verse 12-13 it is said that someone who is fully covered with leprosy, is considered clean. Can anyone shed some background on the reason why?
And if leprosy breaks out all over the skin, and the leprosy covers all the skin of the one who has the sore, from his head to his foot, wherever the priest looks, then the priest shall consider; and indeed if the leprosy has covered all his body, he shall pronounce him clean who has the sore. It has all turned white. He is clean. (NKJV)
leviticus
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
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asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
add a comment |
In Leviticus chapter 13 we read all the regulations with regards to how to determine if a skin condition is leprousy and how to deal with someone who is affected. I always thought that the condition of leprousy in the OT is a picture of sin. Therefore I don't understand why in verse 12-13 it is said that someone who is fully covered with leprosy, is considered clean. Can anyone shed some background on the reason why?
And if leprosy breaks out all over the skin, and the leprosy covers all the skin of the one who has the sore, from his head to his foot, wherever the priest looks, then the priest shall consider; and indeed if the leprosy has covered all his body, he shall pronounce him clean who has the sore. It has all turned white. He is clean. (NKJV)
leviticus
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
3
I have heard a theory about this, that if leprosy is indicative of sin, then once a sinner realises that he is wholly sinful and no longer justifies himself, he is clean. But I have no support for that. Maybe there are references, somewhere to support the concept ? +1.
– Nigel J
5 hours ago
add a comment |
In Leviticus chapter 13 we read all the regulations with regards to how to determine if a skin condition is leprousy and how to deal with someone who is affected. I always thought that the condition of leprousy in the OT is a picture of sin. Therefore I don't understand why in verse 12-13 it is said that someone who is fully covered with leprosy, is considered clean. Can anyone shed some background on the reason why?
And if leprosy breaks out all over the skin, and the leprosy covers all the skin of the one who has the sore, from his head to his foot, wherever the priest looks, then the priest shall consider; and indeed if the leprosy has covered all his body, he shall pronounce him clean who has the sore. It has all turned white. He is clean. (NKJV)
leviticus
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
In Leviticus chapter 13 we read all the regulations with regards to how to determine if a skin condition is leprousy and how to deal with someone who is affected. I always thought that the condition of leprousy in the OT is a picture of sin. Therefore I don't understand why in verse 12-13 it is said that someone who is fully covered with leprosy, is considered clean. Can anyone shed some background on the reason why?
And if leprosy breaks out all over the skin, and the leprosy covers all the skin of the one who has the sore, from his head to his foot, wherever the priest looks, then the priest shall consider; and indeed if the leprosy has covered all his body, he shall pronounce him clean who has the sore. It has all turned white. He is clean. (NKJV)
leviticus
leviticus
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
edited 1 hour ago
Bach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
sarasara
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
3461 silver badge8 bronze badges
3
I have heard a theory about this, that if leprosy is indicative of sin, then once a sinner realises that he is wholly sinful and no longer justifies himself, he is clean. But I have no support for that. Maybe there are references, somewhere to support the concept ? +1.
– Nigel J
5 hours ago
add a comment |
3
I have heard a theory about this, that if leprosy is indicative of sin, then once a sinner realises that he is wholly sinful and no longer justifies himself, he is clean. But I have no support for that. Maybe there are references, somewhere to support the concept ? +1.
– Nigel J
5 hours ago
3
3
I have heard a theory about this, that if leprosy is indicative of sin, then once a sinner realises that he is wholly sinful and no longer justifies himself, he is clean. But I have no support for that. Maybe there are references, somewhere to support the concept ? +1.
– Nigel J
5 hours ago
I have heard a theory about this, that if leprosy is indicative of sin, then once a sinner realises that he is wholly sinful and no longer justifies himself, he is clean. But I have no support for that. Maybe there are references, somewhere to support the concept ? +1.
– Nigel J
5 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
I found an interesting article called "The Nature of the Leprosy of the Bible. From a Medical and Biblical Point of View". According to the author leprosy in the bible is not the same as modern leprosy or Hansens disease. The author brings a lot of evidence from the bible indicating that it is something else. On pages 165-6 he explores the illness of vitiligo as a viable candidate for biblical leprosy:
There is a disease known as "vitiligo," quite common in the tropics,
which is characterized by bright white spots, the hairs of which lose
their color and become white. The disease tends to get progressively
worse, and may involve large areas of the body surface. Cases are on
record of negroes affected with this disease turning entirely white.
The affection is a harmless one and is only objectionable on account
of the disfigurement that it occasions. While this description is
fresh in our memory, let us refer to Levit. I3:I2: "Then the priest
shall consider and behold, if the leprosy have covered all his flesh,
he shall pronounce him clean, that hath the plague: it is turned
white: he is clean." This verse would be quite inexplicable if this
disease were regarded as leprosy, for it partakes of the nature of a
paradox that the spreading of a diseased area (granted that the
disease be of the gravity of leprosy) until the entire body is
involved should be interpreted as rendering one clean or free from
disease. This verse could be readily explained, however, under the
assumption that the disease was vitiligo: the turning white of the
entire surface would cause the obliteration of all spots, as there
would then be uniformity of color; vitiligo having no other
symptoms, the patient would, to all intents and purposes, be well or
clean.
I'm sure there are many other symbolic approaches to explain this paradox, but this has the advantage of coming from a medical point of view. Hope you find this useful.
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
add a comment |
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I found an interesting article called "The Nature of the Leprosy of the Bible. From a Medical and Biblical Point of View". According to the author leprosy in the bible is not the same as modern leprosy or Hansens disease. The author brings a lot of evidence from the bible indicating that it is something else. On pages 165-6 he explores the illness of vitiligo as a viable candidate for biblical leprosy:
There is a disease known as "vitiligo," quite common in the tropics,
which is characterized by bright white spots, the hairs of which lose
their color and become white. The disease tends to get progressively
worse, and may involve large areas of the body surface. Cases are on
record of negroes affected with this disease turning entirely white.
The affection is a harmless one and is only objectionable on account
of the disfigurement that it occasions. While this description is
fresh in our memory, let us refer to Levit. I3:I2: "Then the priest
shall consider and behold, if the leprosy have covered all his flesh,
he shall pronounce him clean, that hath the plague: it is turned
white: he is clean." This verse would be quite inexplicable if this
disease were regarded as leprosy, for it partakes of the nature of a
paradox that the spreading of a diseased area (granted that the
disease be of the gravity of leprosy) until the entire body is
involved should be interpreted as rendering one clean or free from
disease. This verse could be readily explained, however, under the
assumption that the disease was vitiligo: the turning white of the
entire surface would cause the obliteration of all spots, as there
would then be uniformity of color; vitiligo having no other
symptoms, the patient would, to all intents and purposes, be well or
clean.
I'm sure there are many other symbolic approaches to explain this paradox, but this has the advantage of coming from a medical point of view. Hope you find this useful.
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
add a comment |
I found an interesting article called "The Nature of the Leprosy of the Bible. From a Medical and Biblical Point of View". According to the author leprosy in the bible is not the same as modern leprosy or Hansens disease. The author brings a lot of evidence from the bible indicating that it is something else. On pages 165-6 he explores the illness of vitiligo as a viable candidate for biblical leprosy:
There is a disease known as "vitiligo," quite common in the tropics,
which is characterized by bright white spots, the hairs of which lose
their color and become white. The disease tends to get progressively
worse, and may involve large areas of the body surface. Cases are on
record of negroes affected with this disease turning entirely white.
The affection is a harmless one and is only objectionable on account
of the disfigurement that it occasions. While this description is
fresh in our memory, let us refer to Levit. I3:I2: "Then the priest
shall consider and behold, if the leprosy have covered all his flesh,
he shall pronounce him clean, that hath the plague: it is turned
white: he is clean." This verse would be quite inexplicable if this
disease were regarded as leprosy, for it partakes of the nature of a
paradox that the spreading of a diseased area (granted that the
disease be of the gravity of leprosy) until the entire body is
involved should be interpreted as rendering one clean or free from
disease. This verse could be readily explained, however, under the
assumption that the disease was vitiligo: the turning white of the
entire surface would cause the obliteration of all spots, as there
would then be uniformity of color; vitiligo having no other
symptoms, the patient would, to all intents and purposes, be well or
clean.
I'm sure there are many other symbolic approaches to explain this paradox, but this has the advantage of coming from a medical point of view. Hope you find this useful.
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
add a comment |
I found an interesting article called "The Nature of the Leprosy of the Bible. From a Medical and Biblical Point of View". According to the author leprosy in the bible is not the same as modern leprosy or Hansens disease. The author brings a lot of evidence from the bible indicating that it is something else. On pages 165-6 he explores the illness of vitiligo as a viable candidate for biblical leprosy:
There is a disease known as "vitiligo," quite common in the tropics,
which is characterized by bright white spots, the hairs of which lose
their color and become white. The disease tends to get progressively
worse, and may involve large areas of the body surface. Cases are on
record of negroes affected with this disease turning entirely white.
The affection is a harmless one and is only objectionable on account
of the disfigurement that it occasions. While this description is
fresh in our memory, let us refer to Levit. I3:I2: "Then the priest
shall consider and behold, if the leprosy have covered all his flesh,
he shall pronounce him clean, that hath the plague: it is turned
white: he is clean." This verse would be quite inexplicable if this
disease were regarded as leprosy, for it partakes of the nature of a
paradox that the spreading of a diseased area (granted that the
disease be of the gravity of leprosy) until the entire body is
involved should be interpreted as rendering one clean or free from
disease. This verse could be readily explained, however, under the
assumption that the disease was vitiligo: the turning white of the
entire surface would cause the obliteration of all spots, as there
would then be uniformity of color; vitiligo having no other
symptoms, the patient would, to all intents and purposes, be well or
clean.
I'm sure there are many other symbolic approaches to explain this paradox, but this has the advantage of coming from a medical point of view. Hope you find this useful.
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
I found an interesting article called "The Nature of the Leprosy of the Bible. From a Medical and Biblical Point of View". According to the author leprosy in the bible is not the same as modern leprosy or Hansens disease. The author brings a lot of evidence from the bible indicating that it is something else. On pages 165-6 he explores the illness of vitiligo as a viable candidate for biblical leprosy:
There is a disease known as "vitiligo," quite common in the tropics,
which is characterized by bright white spots, the hairs of which lose
their color and become white. The disease tends to get progressively
worse, and may involve large areas of the body surface. Cases are on
record of negroes affected with this disease turning entirely white.
The affection is a harmless one and is only objectionable on account
of the disfigurement that it occasions. While this description is
fresh in our memory, let us refer to Levit. I3:I2: "Then the priest
shall consider and behold, if the leprosy have covered all his flesh,
he shall pronounce him clean, that hath the plague: it is turned
white: he is clean." This verse would be quite inexplicable if this
disease were regarded as leprosy, for it partakes of the nature of a
paradox that the spreading of a diseased area (granted that the
disease be of the gravity of leprosy) until the entire body is
involved should be interpreted as rendering one clean or free from
disease. This verse could be readily explained, however, under the
assumption that the disease was vitiligo: the turning white of the
entire surface would cause the obliteration of all spots, as there
would then be uniformity of color; vitiligo having no other
symptoms, the patient would, to all intents and purposes, be well or
clean.
I'm sure there are many other symbolic approaches to explain this paradox, but this has the advantage of coming from a medical point of view. Hope you find this useful.
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
edited 3 hours ago
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
answered 7 hours ago
BachBach
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
3,6736 silver badges27 bronze badges
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
add a comment |
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
This answer is absurd. We would have to assume that these great efforts to avoid transmission of a disease that's really a genetic disease is some nonsense rather than a generally well-reasoned law.
– Joshua
41 mins ago
add a comment |
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I have heard a theory about this, that if leprosy is indicative of sin, then once a sinner realises that he is wholly sinful and no longer justifies himself, he is clean. But I have no support for that. Maybe there are references, somewhere to support the concept ? +1.
– Nigel J
5 hours ago