Proof that every field is perfect???Perfect closure is perfectEvery algebraic extension of a perfect field is separable and perfecttwo Non isomorphic root field-extension of the field.Show that an field extension is algebraic (normal).If $E/F$ is a finite extension and $E$ is algebraically closed, then $F$ is perfect.Irreducible polynomial is always separable in char 0 fieldPerfect field of characteristic $p$Every finite field is perfectLet $F$ be a field, and let $f(x)in F[x]$ be a polynomial of prime degree. Suppose for every field extension $K$ of $F$If $Lmid K$ is a finite extension of fields then K is perfect iff L is perfect

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Proof that every field is perfect???

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Proof that every field is perfect???


Perfect closure is perfectEvery algebraic extension of a perfect field is separable and perfecttwo Non isomorphic root field-extension of the field.Show that an field extension is algebraic (normal).If $E/F$ is a finite extension and $E$ is algebraically closed, then $F$ is perfect.Irreducible polynomial is always separable in char 0 fieldPerfect field of characteristic $p$Every finite field is perfectLet $F$ be a field, and let $f(x)in F[x]$ be a polynomial of prime degree. Suppose for every field extension $K$ of $F$If $Lmid K$ is a finite extension of fields then K is perfect iff L is perfect






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








5












$begingroup$


The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:





Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.





Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$


















    5












    $begingroup$


    The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:





    Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.





    Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$


      The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:





      Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.





      Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:





      Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.





      Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.







      abstract-algebra






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      edited 8 hours ago









      Bernard

      130k7 gold badges43 silver badges121 bronze badges




      130k7 gold badges43 silver badges121 bronze badges










      asked 9 hours ago









      David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

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      64.7k4 gold badges44 silver badges99 bronze badges




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          13












          $begingroup$

          The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.



          Explicitly, if




          • $q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$


          • $textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$


          • $cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.

          then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get




          • $p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p'(x)=0$.

          As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and




          • $K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.

          then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            9 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            9 hours ago













          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          13












          $begingroup$

          The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.



          Explicitly, if




          • $q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$


          • $textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$


          • $cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.

          then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get




          • $p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p'(x)=0$.

          As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and




          • $K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.

          then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            9 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            9 hours ago















          13












          $begingroup$

          The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.



          Explicitly, if




          • $q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$


          • $textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$


          • $cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.

          then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get




          • $p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p'(x)=0$.

          As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and




          • $K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.

          then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            9 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            9 hours ago













          13












          13








          13





          $begingroup$

          The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.



          Explicitly, if




          • $q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$


          • $textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$


          • $cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.

          then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get




          • $p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p'(x)=0$.

          As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and




          • $K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.

          then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.



          Explicitly, if




          • $q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$


          • $textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$


          • $cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.

          then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get




          • $p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p'(x)=0$.

          As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and




          • $K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$


          • $p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.

          then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 8 hours ago

























          answered 9 hours ago









          quasiquasi

          38.3k2 gold badges27 silver badges68 bronze badges




          38.3k2 gold badges27 silver badges68 bronze badges







          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            9 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            9 hours ago












          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            9 hours ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            9 hours ago







          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          9 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          9 hours ago




          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          9 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          9 hours ago

















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