Proof that every field is perfect???Perfect closure is perfectEvery algebraic extension of a perfect field is separable and perfecttwo Non isomorphic root field-extension of the field.Show that an field extension is algebraic (normal).If $E/F$ is a finite extension and $E$ is algebraically closed, then $F$ is perfect.Irreducible polynomial is always separable in char 0 fieldPerfect field of characteristic $p$Every finite field is perfectLet $F$ be a field, and let $f(x)in F[x]$ be a polynomial of prime degree. Suppose for every field extension $K$ of $F$If $Lmid K$ is a finite extension of fields then K is perfect iff L is perfect
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Proof that every field is perfect???
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Proof that every field is perfect???
Perfect closure is perfectEvery algebraic extension of a perfect field is separable and perfecttwo Non isomorphic root field-extension of the field.Show that an field extension is algebraic (normal).If $E/F$ is a finite extension and $E$ is algebraically closed, then $F$ is perfect.Irreducible polynomial is always separable in char 0 fieldPerfect field of characteristic $p$Every finite field is perfectLet $F$ be a field, and let $f(x)in F[x]$ be a polynomial of prime degree. Suppose for every field extension $K$ of $F$If $Lmid K$ is a finite extension of fields then K is perfect iff L is perfect
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
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The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:
Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.
Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.
abstract-algebra
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The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:
Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.
Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.
abstract-algebra
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:
Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.
Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.
abstract-algebra
$endgroup$
The following must be wrong, since it shows that every field is perfect, which I gather is not so. But I can't find the error:
Suppose $E/K$ is a field extension and $pin K[x]$ is irreducible (in $K[x]$). Then every root of $p$ in $E$ is simple.
Proof: Suppose otoh that $lambdain E$ and $(x-lambda)^2mid p(x)$. Then $(x-lambda)mid p'$, so $gcd_E(p,p')ne1$. But the euclidean algorithm shows that $gcd_K(p,p')=gcd_E(p,p')$, hence $p$ is not irreducible.
abstract-algebra
abstract-algebra
edited 8 hours ago
Bernard
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130k7 gold badges43 silver badges121 bronze badges
asked 9 hours ago
David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich
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64.7k4 gold badges44 silver badges99 bronze badges
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1 Answer
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The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.
Explicitly, if
$q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$
$textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$
$cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.
then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get
$p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$
$p'(x)=0$.
As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and
$K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$
$E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$
$p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.
then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.
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2
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Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
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– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.
Explicitly, if
$q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$
$textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$
$cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.
then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get
$p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$
$p'(x)=0$.
As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and
$K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$
$E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$
$p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.
then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.
Explicitly, if
$q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$
$textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$
$cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.
then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get
$p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$
$p'(x)=0$.
As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and
$K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$
$E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$
$p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.
then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.
Explicitly, if
$q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$
$textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$
$cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.
then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get
$p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$
$p'(x)=0$.
As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and
$K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$
$E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$
$p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.
then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.
$endgroup$
The problem is that you can have $p'=0$, so $gcd(p,p')=p$, which doesn't imply that $p$ is reducible.
Explicitly, if
$q$ is prime.$\[4pt]$
$textchar(K)=q$.$\[4pt]$
$cin E$ is such that $c^qin K$, but $cnotin K$.
then letting $p(x)=x^q-c^q$, we get
$p(x)=(x-c)^q$ which is irreducible in $K[x]$.$\[4pt]$
$p'(x)=0$.
As an example, if $t$ is an indeterminate, and
$K=F_q(t^q)$.$\[4pt]$
$E=F_q(t)$.$\[4pt]$
$p(x)=x^q-t^q=(x-t)^q$.
then $p(x)$ is irreducible in $K[x]$ and $p'(x)=0$.
edited 8 hours ago
answered 9 hours ago
quasiquasi
38.3k2 gold badges27 silver badges68 bronze badges
38.3k2 gold badges27 silver badges68 bronze badges
2
$begingroup$
Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
2
2
$begingroup$
Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Oh!... My first reaction was ok, we make an exception for $deg(p)=0$. But no, we can have $deg(p)>0$ and $p'=0$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
9 hours ago
2
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Yes. This is obviously impossible in fields with characteristic zero. But if the characteristic is positive then it is very easy to find such a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Mark
9 hours ago
add a comment |
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