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Correlation of independent random processes


A special case of 2 jointly Weak-Sense Stationary (WSS) stochastic processesexplanation of correlation of stationary stochastic processesUnderstanding the definition of mean/autocorrelationAutocorrelation function $R_yy(t_1,t_2)$?Is the output of function of two ergodic processes ergodic?Autocorrelation of Addition of Two Independent SignalsAre two jointly stationary white noise processes independent?Physical interpretation of 4th-order correlationsWhat is definition of independent random variableIs the expectation of a random process $X(t)$ with zero DC component necessarily zero?






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1












$begingroup$


Suppose $X(t)$ and $Y(t)$ be two independent random processes. Is $E(X(t_1)Y(t_2))$ necessarily zero?










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$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No. $E<X cdot Y>$ is simply $E<X> cdot E<Y>$
    $endgroup$
    – Hilmar
    11 hours ago

















1












$begingroup$


Suppose $X(t)$ and $Y(t)$ be two independent random processes. Is $E(X(t_1)Y(t_2))$ necessarily zero?










share|improve this question









New contributor



helloworld1e. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No. $E<X cdot Y>$ is simply $E<X> cdot E<Y>$
    $endgroup$
    – Hilmar
    11 hours ago













1












1








1





$begingroup$


Suppose $X(t)$ and $Y(t)$ be two independent random processes. Is $E(X(t_1)Y(t_2))$ necessarily zero?










share|improve this question









New contributor



helloworld1e. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$




Suppose $X(t)$ and $Y(t)$ be two independent random processes. Is $E(X(t_1)Y(t_2))$ necessarily zero?







autocorrelation cross-correlation correlation random-process random






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edited 1 hour ago









Dilip Sarwate

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asked 11 hours ago









helloworld1e.helloworld1e.

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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No. $E<X cdot Y>$ is simply $E<X> cdot E<Y>$
    $endgroup$
    – Hilmar
    11 hours ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No. $E<X cdot Y>$ is simply $E<X> cdot E<Y>$
    $endgroup$
    – Hilmar
    11 hours ago







1




1




$begingroup$
No. $E<X cdot Y>$ is simply $E<X> cdot E<Y>$
$endgroup$
– Hilmar
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
No. $E<X cdot Y>$ is simply $E<X> cdot E<Y>$
$endgroup$
– Hilmar
11 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















6












$begingroup$

No. Quoting Wikipedia's article Independence (probability theory):




If $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables,
then the expectation operator $operatornameE$ has the property



$$operatornameE[X Y] = operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y].$$




Consider your $X(t_1)$ and $Y(t_2)$ as $X$ and $Y$ in this answer. If both $operatornameE[X] ne 0$ and $operatornameE[X] ne 0,$ then the product $operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y]$ will be non-zero.






share|improve this answer











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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    6












    $begingroup$

    No. Quoting Wikipedia's article Independence (probability theory):




    If $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables,
    then the expectation operator $operatornameE$ has the property



    $$operatornameE[X Y] = operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y].$$




    Consider your $X(t_1)$ and $Y(t_2)$ as $X$ and $Y$ in this answer. If both $operatornameE[X] ne 0$ and $operatornameE[X] ne 0,$ then the product $operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y]$ will be non-zero.






    share|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      6












      $begingroup$

      No. Quoting Wikipedia's article Independence (probability theory):




      If $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables,
      then the expectation operator $operatornameE$ has the property



      $$operatornameE[X Y] = operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y].$$




      Consider your $X(t_1)$ and $Y(t_2)$ as $X$ and $Y$ in this answer. If both $operatornameE[X] ne 0$ and $operatornameE[X] ne 0,$ then the product $operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y]$ will be non-zero.






      share|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        6












        6








        6





        $begingroup$

        No. Quoting Wikipedia's article Independence (probability theory):




        If $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables,
        then the expectation operator $operatornameE$ has the property



        $$operatornameE[X Y] = operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y].$$




        Consider your $X(t_1)$ and $Y(t_2)$ as $X$ and $Y$ in this answer. If both $operatornameE[X] ne 0$ and $operatornameE[X] ne 0,$ then the product $operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y]$ will be non-zero.






        share|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        No. Quoting Wikipedia's article Independence (probability theory):




        If $X$ and $Y$ are independent random variables,
        then the expectation operator $operatornameE$ has the property



        $$operatornameE[X Y] = operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y].$$




        Consider your $X(t_1)$ and $Y(t_2)$ as $X$ and $Y$ in this answer. If both $operatornameE[X] ne 0$ and $operatornameE[X] ne 0,$ then the product $operatornameE[X]operatornameE[Y]$ will be non-zero.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 11 hours ago


























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        2 revs, 2 users 95%
        Olli Niemitalo





















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