Why do adjectives come before nouns in English?English words which are both verbs and adjectivesStress rules in English adjective-noun combinationsCan predicate adjectives take more modifiers than attributive adjectives in English? Across languages?Why can 'notwithstanding' be positioned before or after the object without changing meaning?Why in most (all?) languages don't adjectives have gender independently of the nouns they modify?When transliterating English words to Korean, why does the first F become a ㅎ?Why are German and Dutch preschool TV shows so unintelligible to English speakers?For adjectives which change meaning by position: why are they subjective before nouns but objective after?Why is the adjective usually before the noun?Has there been cross-linguistic work on differential adjective-noun order?

Can digital computers understand infinity?

How to create a vimrc macro using :sort?

Front hydraulic disk brake is too powerful on MTB — solutions?

How should the 23rd judge vote?

Why does b+=(4,) work and b = b + (4,) doesn't work when b is a list?

Can Boris Johnson invoke the Civil Contingencies Act to suspend the Benn law?

What are the branches of statistics?

Any Issues with running Workbench 1.3 on a Kickstart 1.2 Amiga 500?

How to respond to "Why didn't you do a postdoc after your PhD?"

How can a "proper" function have a vertical slope?

Disordered Cryptic Orders

Will Brexit potentially have an impact on intra-Schengen flights by EasyJet in November?

Wrap the real right around the trigonometric circle (Metapost)

Translate "Everything burns" into classical Latin

How is Smough's name pronounced?

String Format object extension

How can I learn to write better questions to test for conceptual understanding?

Treatment of large data sets (>1M) in standard objects

Novel with a mix of real world and gods

Which culture used no personal names?

Is the algebra of compact operators flat?

Why was the wedding ring missing during the twist of The Sixth Sense

Is it possible to have 2 ports open on SSH with 2 different authentication schemes?

What does this text mean with capitalized letters?



Why do adjectives come before nouns in English?


English words which are both verbs and adjectivesStress rules in English adjective-noun combinationsCan predicate adjectives take more modifiers than attributive adjectives in English? Across languages?Why can 'notwithstanding' be positioned before or after the object without changing meaning?Why in most (all?) languages don't adjectives have gender independently of the nouns they modify?When transliterating English words to Korean, why does the first F become a ㅎ?Why are German and Dutch preschool TV shows so unintelligible to English speakers?For adjectives which change meaning by position: why are they subjective before nouns but objective after?Why is the adjective usually before the noun?Has there been cross-linguistic work on differential adjective-noun order?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty
margin-bottom:0;

.everyonelovesstackoverflowposition:absolute;height:1px;width:1px;opacity:0;top:0;left:0;pointer-events:none;








1

















Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?










share|improve this question









New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.























  • Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.

    – jlawler
    7 hours ago


















1

















Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?










share|improve this question









New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.























  • Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.

    – jlawler
    7 hours ago














1












1








1


1






Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?










share|improve this question









New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?







syntax english historical-linguistics adjectives






share|improve this question









New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.










share|improve this question









New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








share|improve this question




share|improve this question



share|improve this question








edited 2 hours ago









LjL

1,0846 silver badges17 bronze badges




1,0846 silver badges17 bronze badges






New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








asked 13 hours ago









LiligirlLiligirl

161 bronze badge




161 bronze badge




New contributor



Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




New contributor




Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

















  • Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.

    – jlawler
    7 hours ago


















  • Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.

    – jlawler
    7 hours ago

















Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.

– jlawler
7 hours ago






Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.

– jlawler
7 hours ago











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















4


















"Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).



However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.






share|improve this answer


























  • I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

    – sumelic
    5 hours ago












  • @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago











  • I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

    – sumelic
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago


















3


















It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.



In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.



Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).



There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")



Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".






share|improve this answer











New contributor



user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





















  • Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

    – bytebuster
    11 hours ago











  • You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

    – user2474226
    10 hours ago






  • 3





    @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

    – fdb
    10 hours ago






  • 1





    @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

    – bytebuster
    8 hours ago











  • I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

    – LjL
    2 hours ago



















2


















The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
aside from the development of prepositions".



OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.



The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.






share|improve this answer



























    Your Answer








    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "312"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: false,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: null,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader:
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/4.0/"u003ecc by-sa 4.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    ,
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );







    Liligirl is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









    draft saved

    draft discarded
















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2flinguistics.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f33766%2fwhy-do-adjectives-come-before-nouns-in-english%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown


























    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    4


















    "Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).



    However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.






    share|improve this answer


























    • I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago












    • @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago











    • I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago






    • 1





      @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago















    4


















    "Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).



    However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.






    share|improve this answer


























    • I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago












    • @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago











    • I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago






    • 1





      @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago













    4














    4










    4









    "Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).



    However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.






    share|improve this answer














    "Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).



    However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.







    share|improve this answer













    share|improve this answer




    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 6 hours ago









    DraconisDraconis

    24.1k2 gold badges44 silver badges93 bronze badges




    24.1k2 gold badges44 silver badges93 bronze badges















    • I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago












    • @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago











    • I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago






    • 1





      @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago

















    • I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago












    • @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago











    • I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

      – sumelic
      5 hours ago






    • 1





      @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

      – Draconis
      5 hours ago
















    I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

    – sumelic
    5 hours ago






    I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.

    – sumelic
    5 hours ago














    @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago





    @sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago













    I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

    – sumelic
    5 hours ago





    I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm

    – sumelic
    5 hours ago




    1




    1





    @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago





    @sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago













    3


















    It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.



    In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.



    Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).



    There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")



    Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".






    share|improve this answer











    New contributor



    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.





















    • Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

      – bytebuster
      11 hours ago











    • You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

      – user2474226
      10 hours ago






    • 3





      @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

      – fdb
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

      – bytebuster
      8 hours ago











    • I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

      – LjL
      2 hours ago
















    3


















    It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.



    In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.



    Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).



    There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")



    Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".






    share|improve this answer











    New contributor



    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.





















    • Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

      – bytebuster
      11 hours ago











    • You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

      – user2474226
      10 hours ago






    • 3





      @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

      – fdb
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

      – bytebuster
      8 hours ago











    • I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

      – LjL
      2 hours ago














    3














    3










    3









    It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.



    In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.



    Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).



    There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")



    Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".






    share|improve this answer











    New contributor



    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.









    It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.



    In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.



    Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).



    There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")



    Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".







    share|improve this answer











    New contributor



    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    share|improve this answer




    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 11 hours ago





















    New contributor



    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    answered 11 hours ago









    user2474226user2474226

    492 bronze badges




    492 bronze badges




    New contributor



    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.




    New contributor




    user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.

















    • Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

      – bytebuster
      11 hours ago











    • You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

      – user2474226
      10 hours ago






    • 3





      @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

      – fdb
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

      – bytebuster
      8 hours ago











    • I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

      – LjL
      2 hours ago


















    • Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

      – bytebuster
      11 hours ago











    • You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

      – user2474226
      10 hours ago






    • 3





      @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

      – fdb
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

      – bytebuster
      8 hours ago











    • I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

      – LjL
      2 hours ago

















    Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

    – bytebuster
    11 hours ago





    Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.

    – bytebuster
    11 hours ago













    You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

    – user2474226
    10 hours ago





    You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.

    – user2474226
    10 hours ago




    3




    3





    @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

    – fdb
    10 hours ago





    @bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.

    – fdb
    10 hours ago




    1




    1





    @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

    – bytebuster
    8 hours ago





    @fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.

    – bytebuster
    8 hours ago













    I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

    – LjL
    2 hours ago






    I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)

    – LjL
    2 hours ago












    2


















    The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
    aside from the development of prepositions".



    OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.



    The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.






    share|improve this answer






























      2


















      The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
      aside from the development of prepositions".



      OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.



      The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.






      share|improve this answer




























        2














        2










        2









        The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
        aside from the development of prepositions".



        OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.



        The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.






        share|improve this answer














        The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
        aside from the development of prepositions".



        OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.



        The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.







        share|improve this answer













        share|improve this answer




        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 4 hours ago









        user6726user6726

        39.8k1 gold badge27 silver badges78 bronze badges




        39.8k1 gold badge27 silver badges78 bronze badges
























            Liligirl is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









            draft saved

            draft discarded

















            Liligirl is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.












            Liligirl is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.











            Liligirl is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.














            Thanks for contributing an answer to Linguistics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid


            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2flinguistics.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f33766%2fwhy-do-adjectives-come-before-nouns-in-english%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown









            Popular posts from this blog

            Canceling a color specificationRandomly assigning color to Graphics3D objects?Default color for Filling in Mathematica 9Coloring specific elements of sets with a prime modified order in an array plotHow to pick a color differing significantly from the colors already in a given color list?Detection of the text colorColor numbers based on their valueCan color schemes for use with ColorData include opacity specification?My dynamic color schemes

            Invision Community Contents History See also References External links Navigation menuProprietaryinvisioncommunity.comIPS Community ForumsIPS Community Forumsthis blog entry"License Changes, IP.Board 3.4, and the Future""Interview -- Matt Mecham of Ibforums""CEO Invision Power Board, Matt Mecham Is a Liar, Thief!"IPB License Explanation 1.3, 1.3.1, 2.0, and 2.1ArchivedSecurity Fixes, Updates And Enhancements For IPB 1.3.1Archived"New Demo Accounts - Invision Power Services"the original"New Default Skin"the original"Invision Power Board 3.0.0 and Applications Released"the original"Archived copy"the original"Perpetual licenses being done away with""Release Notes - Invision Power Services""Introducing: IPS Community Suite 4!"Invision Community Release Notes

            François Viète Contents Biography Work and thought Bibliography See also Notes Further reading External links Navigation menup. 21Google Bookspp. 75–77Google BooksDe thou (from University of Saint Andrews)ArchivedGoogle BooksGoogle BooksGoogle BooksGoogle booksGoogle Bookscc-parthenay.frL'histoire universelle (fr)Universal History (en)ArchivedAdsabs.harvard.eduPagesperso-orange.frArchive.orgChikara Sasaki. Descartes' mathematical thought p.259Google BooksGoogle BooksGoogle Bookspp. 152 and onwardGoogle BooksGoogle BooksScribd.comGoogle Books1257-7979Google BooksGoogle BooksGoogle BooksGoogle BooksGoogle BooksGoogle BooksGallica.bnf.frGoogle BooksGoogle Books"François Viète"Francois Viète: Father of Modern Algebraic NotationThe Lawyer and the GamblerAbout TarporleySite de Jean-Paul GuichardL'algèbre nouvelle"About the Harmonicon"cb120511976(data)1188044800000 0001 0913 5903n82164680ola2013766880073431702w6vt1sb70287374827140948071409480