Why do adjectives come before nouns in English?English words which are both verbs and adjectivesStress rules in English adjective-noun combinationsCan predicate adjectives take more modifiers than attributive adjectives in English? Across languages?Why can 'notwithstanding' be positioned before or after the object without changing meaning?Why in most (all?) languages don't adjectives have gender independently of the nouns they modify?When transliterating English words to Korean, why does the first F become a ㅎ?Why are German and Dutch preschool TV shows so unintelligible to English speakers?For adjectives which change meaning by position: why are they subjective before nouns but objective after?Why is the adjective usually before the noun?Has there been cross-linguistic work on differential adjective-noun order?
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Why do adjectives come before nouns in English?
English words which are both verbs and adjectivesStress rules in English adjective-noun combinationsCan predicate adjectives take more modifiers than attributive adjectives in English? Across languages?Why can 'notwithstanding' be positioned before or after the object without changing meaning?Why in most (all?) languages don't adjectives have gender independently of the nouns they modify?When transliterating English words to Korean, why does the first F become a ㅎ?Why are German and Dutch preschool TV shows so unintelligible to English speakers?For adjectives which change meaning by position: why are they subjective before nouns but objective after?Why is the adjective usually before the noun?Has there been cross-linguistic work on differential adjective-noun order?
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Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?
syntax english historical-linguistics adjectives
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Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?
syntax english historical-linguistics adjectives
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Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.
– jlawler
7 hours ago
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Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?
syntax english historical-linguistics adjectives
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Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Why does the attributive adjective come before a noun in English? In most languages, the adjective comes always after a noun. For example, white car is written as the equivalent of car white in Latin languages. What is the origin of this?
syntax english historical-linguistics adjectives
syntax english historical-linguistics adjectives
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Liligirl is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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edited 2 hours ago
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Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.
– jlawler
7 hours ago
add a comment
|
Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.
– jlawler
7 hours ago
Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.
– jlawler
7 hours ago
Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.
– jlawler
7 hours ago
add a comment
|
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
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"Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).
However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
1
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
add a comment
|
It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.
In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.
Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).
There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")
Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".
New contributor
user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
3
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
1
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
aside from the development of prepositions".
OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.
The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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"Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).
However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
1
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
add a comment
|
"Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).
However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
1
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
add a comment
|
"Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).
However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.
"Why" is always a difficult question to answer in linguistics. Sometimes, the best we can say is "it's just the way things are": in some languages (English, Russian, Ancient Greek, Hittite, Japanese), attributive adjectives typically precede the noun, while in others (Latin, most of Romance, Swahili, Arabic, Persian), they tend to follow. There's no objective reason why one is better than the other; it's just one of the rules of the syntax. English actually uses a mix: attributive adjectives generally have to come after indefinite pronouns (I saw something red, *I saw red something).
However, this choice sometimes does connect to other features of the syntax. Some syntacticians categorize languages as a whole as right-branching vs left-branching, also known as head-initial vs head-final. English is generally considered head-initial aka right-branching; since the attributive adjective is the head of its phrase, according to these theories, it makes sense that it comes first. But this isn't an absolute: German is head-initial sometimes and head-final other times, for example, while Japanese is pretty much always head-final but has nouns as the heads of noun-plus-attributive-adjective phrases. And, as you've seen above, English inverts the order in certain regular circumstances. So this is more like a vague categorical guideline than a clean boolean property.
answered 6 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
24.1k2 gold badges44 silver badges93 bronze badges
24.1k2 gold badges44 silver badges93 bronze badges
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
1
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
add a comment
|
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
1
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
I don't understand the second paragraph. The question is asking about why adjectives come before nouns in a noun phrases; the noun is the head of the noun phrase (setting aside the topic of noun phrase vs. determiner phrase analyses), so the head-initial word order is noun-adjective, not adjective-noun.
– sumelic
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
@sumelic I've seen analyses of English where "the red car" is a DP containing an AP containing an NP, though I'm not sure how standard that is (I'm very much not a syntactician). In that analysis, "red car" is an AP headed by "red".
– Draconis
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
I'm not a syntactician either, but "red car" being analyzed as an adjective phrase headed by red looks completely alien to me. Are you sure you're remembering the structure correctly? For example, the following analysis, which does use determiner phrases, says that adjectives "are recursive modifiers of nouns" or "N' adjuncts": primus.arts.u-szeged.hu/bese/Chapter4/4.1.htm
– sumelic
5 hours ago
1
1
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
@sumelic That very well might be the case. I'll see if I can ask an actual syntactician.
– Draconis
5 hours ago
add a comment
|
It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.
In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.
Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).
There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")
Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".
New contributor
user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
3
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
1
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.
In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.
Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).
There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")
Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".
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Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
3
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
1
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.
In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.
Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).
There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")
Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".
New contributor
user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
It's perhaps not entirely accurate to say 'most languages'. In several Indo-European languages, the adjective comes before the noun too. E.g. in Russian - 'белая машина' is 'white car', but the other way around 'машина белая' actually means 'the car is white'.
In Hindi, 'सफेद गाडी' ('safed gaadi') has the adjective 'safed' before the noun too.
Even in Latin languages, e.g. Italian, the position of the adjective is not always after the noun (e.g. 'beautiful red ball' becomes 'bella palla rossa' - note the adjective 'bella' preceding the noun 'palla' and 'rossa' succeeding it).
There's some analysis in this paper that you may find useful: Artemis Alexiadous, "Adjective Syntax and (the absence of) noun raising in the DP")
Another paper that discusses the conditions under which a normally post-nominal adjective (e.g. in French) sometimes appears pre-nominally is Robert Truswell, "Non-restrictive Adjective Interpretation and Association with Focus".
New contributor
user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 11 hours ago
New contributor
user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 11 hours ago
user2474226user2474226
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New contributor
user2474226 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
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Check out our Code of Conduct.
Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
3
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
1
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
3
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
1
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
Welcome to Linguistics.SE! Although this post contains valid observations, it does not actually answer the question, Why in English the attributive adjective comes before a noun?. If the direct answer is contained within the paper you referenced, please take care to write up some key points straight to your answer.
– bytebuster
11 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
You are, of course, correct. My impression of the question was that English was somehow posed as an oddity requiring specific reasons for developing that way, whereas if other languages also feature pre-nominal attributive adjectives, then perhaps it's not a historical reason for the divergence but a more structural one, if that makes sense.
– user2474226
10 hours ago
3
3
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
@bytebuster. In linguistics "why" is usually a bad question.
– fdb
10 hours ago
1
1
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
@fdb, sure. IMO, bad questions should be closed instead of receiving — also bad — answers.
– bytebuster
8 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
I happen to think that the question is bad but the answer is good, especially for a new contributor, who shouldn't really be bashed for doing their best (that's what the waving hand is for!). Upvote and keep from me. (Of course, the other answers are good too, but considering who they're coming from, that surprises nobody.)
– LjL
2 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
aside from the development of prepositions".
OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.
The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.
add a comment
|
The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
aside from the development of prepositions".
OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.
The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.
add a comment
|
The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
aside from the development of prepositions".
OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.
The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.
The short answer to why we say "a tall tree" and not "a tree tall" is that we learned this pattern from listening to other people speaking; and those people got their rules from their elders, and so on. In other words, this is and has been a historical fact of the language for many years. Ringe & Taylor (2014) The development of Old English have a reasonably extensive discussion of the history of English word order, and A-N order seems to be a fact of Old English as well. Ringe (2006) in the predecessor volume From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Germanic is a bit brief on Proto-Germanic syntax, saying "PGmc syntax reflected the PIE situation with little change,
aside from the development of prepositions".
OE order of noun and adjective is not as rigid as it is in Modern English, see Ringe & Taylor §8.7 esp. §8.7.3. For example the order "angel holy", "garment rough", "thane the foremost", "sorrow the great" exist in OE. There are proposed correlations between pre-nominal vs. post-nominal order and formal or functional properties: attributive, given information, non-restrictive reading, inherent or intrinsic characteristics and weak adjective form – vs. predicative, new information, restrictive reading and temporary characteristics.
The question of why there are is pre-nominal adjectives in Germanic at all is not trivial. There is similar variability in word order in other branches of IE, so that Ancient Greek A N ἀγαθοὶ ἄνδρες vs N A ἄνδρες ἀγαθοί seems to relate to focus / emphasis. Latin has similar variability. Once can speculate about possible explanations for the stronger tendency for adjectives to be pre-nominal and not post-nominal in Modern English, for example loss of inflectional affixes may have forced adoption of more rigid word order patterns.
answered 4 hours ago
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Only one-word adjectives come before nouns in English. Adjectives of more than one word come after the noun. Consider an eleven-year-old boy (hyphens indicate a compound word) versus a boy eleven years old. They mean the same thing, but they have to appear in that order.
– jlawler
7 hours ago