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Inverse of a skew-symmetric matrix !!

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Inverse of a skew-symmetric matrix !!


Skew-symmetric form as matrixRelationship between symplectic forms and skew-symmetric matricesWhen the product between a skew-symmetric matrix and a rotation matrix is skew-symmetric?Diagonalization of Skew symmetric matrixEigenvalues for symmetric and skew-symmetric part of a matrixInverse of certain symmetric 2x2 block matricesSkew-symmetric square roots of symmetric matrixRevisit “Matrix exponential of a skew symmetric matrix” and rotation matricesSome questions about a $3 times 3 $ real skew-symmetric matrixConfirming whether a matrix is skew symmetric or not






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2












$begingroup$


For $a, x, y, z in mathbb R$, let $$M= left(
beginarraycccc
cos(a) & sin(a) , x & sin(a), y & sin(a) , z \
-sin(a) , x & cos(a) & sin(a) ,z & -sin(a), y \
-sin(a) , y & -sin(a) , z & cos(a) & sin(a) , x \
-sin(a) , z & sin(a) , y & -sin(a), x & cos(a)
endarray
right).$$

Without doing much calculation, why the matrix $M-I_4$ is invertible and why its inverse is given $$(M-I_4)^-1=,frac-12 I_4 - fraccot(sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 )2sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 A,$$
where $A$ is the skew-symmetric matrix given by
$$A=left(
beginarraycccc
0 & x & y & z \
-x & 0 & z & -y \
-y & -z & 0 & x \
-z & y & -x & 0
endarray
right).$$

Thank you in advance










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    With 919 credits you should know that this is not a homework solution platform. What have you done so far on the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $M = cos(a)I + sin(a)A$ and hence $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I+sin(a)A$. So, $M-I$ is definitely not invertible if $ain S:=2kpi : kinmathbb Z$. Let $anotin S$. Then $M-I$ is invertible iff $A-frac1-cos(a)sin(a)I$ is invertible. Since $A$ as a skew-symmetric matrix does not have real eigenvalues other than possibly zero, $M-I$ is invertible for $anotin S$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're comfortable with Kronecker products, then it may be useful to observe that $M = cos(a) I + sin(a) A$, and that $$ A = x pmatrix1&0\0&1 otimes pmatrix0&1\-1&0 + pmatrix0&1\-1&0otimespmatrixy&z\z&-y $$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    7 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That works. However, I'm wondering what the author of the question had in mind when he said "without doing much calculation".
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    6 hours ago






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    The "inverse" as it stands is false anyway because it does not depend on $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago

















2












$begingroup$


For $a, x, y, z in mathbb R$, let $$M= left(
beginarraycccc
cos(a) & sin(a) , x & sin(a), y & sin(a) , z \
-sin(a) , x & cos(a) & sin(a) ,z & -sin(a), y \
-sin(a) , y & -sin(a) , z & cos(a) & sin(a) , x \
-sin(a) , z & sin(a) , y & -sin(a), x & cos(a)
endarray
right).$$

Without doing much calculation, why the matrix $M-I_4$ is invertible and why its inverse is given $$(M-I_4)^-1=,frac-12 I_4 - fraccot(sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 )2sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 A,$$
where $A$ is the skew-symmetric matrix given by
$$A=left(
beginarraycccc
0 & x & y & z \
-x & 0 & z & -y \
-y & -z & 0 & x \
-z & y & -x & 0
endarray
right).$$

Thank you in advance










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    With 919 credits you should know that this is not a homework solution platform. What have you done so far on the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $M = cos(a)I + sin(a)A$ and hence $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I+sin(a)A$. So, $M-I$ is definitely not invertible if $ain S:=2kpi : kinmathbb Z$. Let $anotin S$. Then $M-I$ is invertible iff $A-frac1-cos(a)sin(a)I$ is invertible. Since $A$ as a skew-symmetric matrix does not have real eigenvalues other than possibly zero, $M-I$ is invertible for $anotin S$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're comfortable with Kronecker products, then it may be useful to observe that $M = cos(a) I + sin(a) A$, and that $$ A = x pmatrix1&0\0&1 otimes pmatrix0&1\-1&0 + pmatrix0&1\-1&0otimespmatrixy&z\z&-y $$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    7 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That works. However, I'm wondering what the author of the question had in mind when he said "without doing much calculation".
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    6 hours ago






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    The "inverse" as it stands is false anyway because it does not depend on $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago













2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


For $a, x, y, z in mathbb R$, let $$M= left(
beginarraycccc
cos(a) & sin(a) , x & sin(a), y & sin(a) , z \
-sin(a) , x & cos(a) & sin(a) ,z & -sin(a), y \
-sin(a) , y & -sin(a) , z & cos(a) & sin(a) , x \
-sin(a) , z & sin(a) , y & -sin(a), x & cos(a)
endarray
right).$$

Without doing much calculation, why the matrix $M-I_4$ is invertible and why its inverse is given $$(M-I_4)^-1=,frac-12 I_4 - fraccot(sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 )2sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 A,$$
where $A$ is the skew-symmetric matrix given by
$$A=left(
beginarraycccc
0 & x & y & z \
-x & 0 & z & -y \
-y & -z & 0 & x \
-z & y & -x & 0
endarray
right).$$

Thank you in advance










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




For $a, x, y, z in mathbb R$, let $$M= left(
beginarraycccc
cos(a) & sin(a) , x & sin(a), y & sin(a) , z \
-sin(a) , x & cos(a) & sin(a) ,z & -sin(a), y \
-sin(a) , y & -sin(a) , z & cos(a) & sin(a) , x \
-sin(a) , z & sin(a) , y & -sin(a), x & cos(a)
endarray
right).$$

Without doing much calculation, why the matrix $M-I_4$ is invertible and why its inverse is given $$(M-I_4)^-1=,frac-12 I_4 - fraccot(sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 )2sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2 A,$$
where $A$ is the skew-symmetric matrix given by
$$A=left(
beginarraycccc
0 & x & y & z \
-x & 0 & z & -y \
-y & -z & 0 & x \
-z & y & -x & 0
endarray
right).$$

Thank you in advance







calculus linear-algebra matrices symmetric-matrices






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 8 hours ago









Z. AlfataZ. Alfata

9325 silver badges14 bronze badges




9325 silver badges14 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    With 919 credits you should know that this is not a homework solution platform. What have you done so far on the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $M = cos(a)I + sin(a)A$ and hence $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I+sin(a)A$. So, $M-I$ is definitely not invertible if $ain S:=2kpi : kinmathbb Z$. Let $anotin S$. Then $M-I$ is invertible iff $A-frac1-cos(a)sin(a)I$ is invertible. Since $A$ as a skew-symmetric matrix does not have real eigenvalues other than possibly zero, $M-I$ is invertible for $anotin S$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're comfortable with Kronecker products, then it may be useful to observe that $M = cos(a) I + sin(a) A$, and that $$ A = x pmatrix1&0\0&1 otimes pmatrix0&1\-1&0 + pmatrix0&1\-1&0otimespmatrixy&z\z&-y $$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    7 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That works. However, I'm wondering what the author of the question had in mind when he said "without doing much calculation".
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    6 hours ago






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    The "inverse" as it stands is false anyway because it does not depend on $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    With 919 credits you should know that this is not a homework solution platform. What have you done so far on the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $M = cos(a)I + sin(a)A$ and hence $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I+sin(a)A$. So, $M-I$ is definitely not invertible if $ain S:=2kpi : kinmathbb Z$. Let $anotin S$. Then $M-I$ is invertible iff $A-frac1-cos(a)sin(a)I$ is invertible. Since $A$ as a skew-symmetric matrix does not have real eigenvalues other than possibly zero, $M-I$ is invertible for $anotin S$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    7 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're comfortable with Kronecker products, then it may be useful to observe that $M = cos(a) I + sin(a) A$, and that $$ A = x pmatrix1&0\0&1 otimes pmatrix0&1\-1&0 + pmatrix0&1\-1&0otimespmatrixy&z\z&-y $$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    7 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That works. However, I'm wondering what the author of the question had in mind when he said "without doing much calculation".
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    6 hours ago






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    The "inverse" as it stands is false anyway because it does not depend on $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago















$begingroup$
With 919 credits you should know that this is not a homework solution platform. What have you done so far on the problem?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
With 919 credits you should know that this is not a homework solution platform. What have you done so far on the problem?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
7 hours ago




2




2




$begingroup$
Note that $M = cos(a)I + sin(a)A$ and hence $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I+sin(a)A$. So, $M-I$ is definitely not invertible if $ain S:=2kpi : kinmathbb Z$. Let $anotin S$. Then $M-I$ is invertible iff $A-frac1-cos(a)sin(a)I$ is invertible. Since $A$ as a skew-symmetric matrix does not have real eigenvalues other than possibly zero, $M-I$ is invertible for $anotin S$.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
7 hours ago





$begingroup$
Note that $M = cos(a)I + sin(a)A$ and hence $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I+sin(a)A$. So, $M-I$ is definitely not invertible if $ain S:=2kpi : kinmathbb Z$. Let $anotin S$. Then $M-I$ is invertible iff $A-frac1-cos(a)sin(a)I$ is invertible. Since $A$ as a skew-symmetric matrix does not have real eigenvalues other than possibly zero, $M-I$ is invertible for $anotin S$.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
7 hours ago





1




1




$begingroup$
If you're comfortable with Kronecker products, then it may be useful to observe that $M = cos(a) I + sin(a) A$, and that $$ A = x pmatrix1&0\0&1 otimes pmatrix0&1\-1&0 + pmatrix0&1\-1&0otimespmatrixy&z\z&-y $$
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
If you're comfortable with Kronecker products, then it may be useful to observe that $M = cos(a) I + sin(a) A$, and that $$ A = x pmatrix1&0\0&1 otimes pmatrix0&1\-1&0 + pmatrix0&1\-1&0otimespmatrixy&z\z&-y $$
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
7 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
That works. However, I'm wondering what the author of the question had in mind when he said "without doing much calculation".
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
That works. However, I'm wondering what the author of the question had in mind when he said "without doing much calculation".
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
6 hours ago




3




3




$begingroup$
The "inverse" as it stands is false anyway because it does not depend on $a$.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
The "inverse" as it stands is false anyway because it does not depend on $a$.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3













$begingroup$

Here is a proof of the first part (inversibility of $M-I_4$)
and a computation of the inverse (though I do not get a result in the form of yours).



One obtains an efficient simplification by using half-angle formulas (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution) :



$$cos(a)=dfrac1-t^21+t^2 textand sin(a)=dfrac2t1+t^2$$



Let $N=M-I_4$.



All entries in matrix $N$ have a common factor $dfrac2t1+t^2$. Therefore we can set



$$N=dfrac2t1+t^2P textwith
P:=beginbmatrix-t&x&y&z\-x&-t&z&-y\-y&-z&-t&x\-z&y&-x&-tendbmatrix$$



Therefore, an equivalent issue is to show the invertibility of $P$.



Please note that $P=A-tI_4$ with matrix $A$ as you have defined it.



It turns out that the determinant of $P$ is very compact :



$$det(P)=(t^2 + x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag1$$



which is non-zero, excepted... exceptional cases $x=y=z=0$ and $t=0$ (the last case corresponding to angles $a=kpi, k in mathbbZ$). Set apart these cases, $P$ is always invertible.



Now, what is the inverse of $M-I$ ? The inverse of $P$, considered as a quaternion (see remark 1 below) is



$$P^-1:=dfrac1t^2+x^2+y^2+z^2beginbmatrix-t&-x&-y&-z\x&-t&-z&y\y&z&-t&-x\z&-y&x&-tendbmatrixtag2$$



(as one can easily check by multiplication of $P$ and $P^-1$).



Therefore, as $M-I_4=dfrac2t1+t^2P=sin(a)P$ :



$$(M-I_4)^-1=dfrac1sin(a)P^-1$$



with $P^-1$ given by (2).



which is different from your formula (as it has been remarked, this formula needs to depend on $a$).



Remarks :



1) It is not surprizing to get formula (1) : it is to be related to the $4 times 4$ matrix representation of quaternions (see paragraph "Matrix representation" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quaternion) and their so-called "norm". By the way, I wouldn't be that surprised that your issue come quaternionic representations...



2) Using (1) with $t=0$, we get
$$det(A)=(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag2$$



3) Formula (1) has to be connected to the so-called Pfaffian. If we have had to compute the determinant of a skew-symmetric matrix of even order, it is good to know that there exists a formula as a square of a polynomial expression in its entries called its associated Pfaffian. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffian where you will find the following formula for order $4$ :



$$detbeginbmatrix0&a&b&c\-a&0&d&e\-b&-d&0&f\-c&-e&-f&0endbmatrix=(af-be+dc)^2$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago


















3













$begingroup$

Here's an approach which is relatively light on computation.



As in the comments, we observe that $A^2 = -(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)I$. It follows that any rational function of $A$ can be written in the form $p I + q A$ for some $p,q$. In other words, there necessarily exist numbers $p,q$ such that
$$
(M-I)^-1 = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)^-1 = p I + q A
$$

Now, expand the product $(M-I)(pI + qA),$ and solve for the $p$ and $q$ that cause this product to equal $I$. In particular, we have
$$
(M - I)(pI + qA) = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)(pI + qA)\
= p(cos(a) - 1)I + (q[cos(a) - 1] + psin(a))A + sin(a)qA^2\
= left[p(cos(a) - 1) - sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)q right]I + left[q(cos(a) - 1) + psin(a)right]A.
$$

Thus, it suffices to find $p,q$ that solve the system of equations
$$
beginarrayccccccc
(cos(a) - 1) &p &- &sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)&q &= &1\
sin(a) &p &+ &(cos(a) - 1)&q &= &0.
endarray
$$

Solving this system yields
$$
p = frac1 - cos(a)D, quad q = fracsin(a)D
$$

where $D$ is the determinant of the coefficient matrix of this system, that is
$$
D = sin^2(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + (cos(a) - 1)^2.
$$

I see no general way of simplifying the resulting expression.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago


















2













$begingroup$

$A$ has the form $A = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix$, where $JL+LJ = 0$, $J^2 = -x^2I$, and $L^2 = (y^2+z^2)I$. Therefore,
$$
A^2 = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&JendpmatrixbeginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix = beginpmatrixJ^2-L^2&0\0&J^2-L^2endpmatrix = -r^2I_4,
$$

where $r := sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2$. Hence, for $zinmathbb C$ we have $(A-z)(A+z) = A^2-z^2I = -(r^2+z^2)I$ and thus
$$
(A-z)^-1 = -fracA+zr^2+z^2.
$$

Now, as I wrote in the comments, we have $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I + sin(a)A$. So, for $a = 2kpi$ the matrix $M-I$ is singular, whereas for $a=(2k+1)pi$ we have $M-I = -2I$. If $a$ is not one of these values,
$$
(M-I)^-1 = left[sin(a)left(A - frac1-cos(a)sin(a)right)right]^-1 = frac 1sin(a)cdotfracA+alphar^2+alpha^2,
$$

where $alpha = frac1-cos(a)sin(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago














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3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3













$begingroup$

Here is a proof of the first part (inversibility of $M-I_4$)
and a computation of the inverse (though I do not get a result in the form of yours).



One obtains an efficient simplification by using half-angle formulas (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution) :



$$cos(a)=dfrac1-t^21+t^2 textand sin(a)=dfrac2t1+t^2$$



Let $N=M-I_4$.



All entries in matrix $N$ have a common factor $dfrac2t1+t^2$. Therefore we can set



$$N=dfrac2t1+t^2P textwith
P:=beginbmatrix-t&x&y&z\-x&-t&z&-y\-y&-z&-t&x\-z&y&-x&-tendbmatrix$$



Therefore, an equivalent issue is to show the invertibility of $P$.



Please note that $P=A-tI_4$ with matrix $A$ as you have defined it.



It turns out that the determinant of $P$ is very compact :



$$det(P)=(t^2 + x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag1$$



which is non-zero, excepted... exceptional cases $x=y=z=0$ and $t=0$ (the last case corresponding to angles $a=kpi, k in mathbbZ$). Set apart these cases, $P$ is always invertible.



Now, what is the inverse of $M-I$ ? The inverse of $P$, considered as a quaternion (see remark 1 below) is



$$P^-1:=dfrac1t^2+x^2+y^2+z^2beginbmatrix-t&-x&-y&-z\x&-t&-z&y\y&z&-t&-x\z&-y&x&-tendbmatrixtag2$$



(as one can easily check by multiplication of $P$ and $P^-1$).



Therefore, as $M-I_4=dfrac2t1+t^2P=sin(a)P$ :



$$(M-I_4)^-1=dfrac1sin(a)P^-1$$



with $P^-1$ given by (2).



which is different from your formula (as it has been remarked, this formula needs to depend on $a$).



Remarks :



1) It is not surprizing to get formula (1) : it is to be related to the $4 times 4$ matrix representation of quaternions (see paragraph "Matrix representation" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quaternion) and their so-called "norm". By the way, I wouldn't be that surprised that your issue come quaternionic representations...



2) Using (1) with $t=0$, we get
$$det(A)=(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag2$$



3) Formula (1) has to be connected to the so-called Pfaffian. If we have had to compute the determinant of a skew-symmetric matrix of even order, it is good to know that there exists a formula as a square of a polynomial expression in its entries called its associated Pfaffian. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffian where you will find the following formula for order $4$ :



$$detbeginbmatrix0&a&b&c\-a&0&d&e\-b&-d&0&f\-c&-e&-f&0endbmatrix=(af-be+dc)^2$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago















3













$begingroup$

Here is a proof of the first part (inversibility of $M-I_4$)
and a computation of the inverse (though I do not get a result in the form of yours).



One obtains an efficient simplification by using half-angle formulas (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution) :



$$cos(a)=dfrac1-t^21+t^2 textand sin(a)=dfrac2t1+t^2$$



Let $N=M-I_4$.



All entries in matrix $N$ have a common factor $dfrac2t1+t^2$. Therefore we can set



$$N=dfrac2t1+t^2P textwith
P:=beginbmatrix-t&x&y&z\-x&-t&z&-y\-y&-z&-t&x\-z&y&-x&-tendbmatrix$$



Therefore, an equivalent issue is to show the invertibility of $P$.



Please note that $P=A-tI_4$ with matrix $A$ as you have defined it.



It turns out that the determinant of $P$ is very compact :



$$det(P)=(t^2 + x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag1$$



which is non-zero, excepted... exceptional cases $x=y=z=0$ and $t=0$ (the last case corresponding to angles $a=kpi, k in mathbbZ$). Set apart these cases, $P$ is always invertible.



Now, what is the inverse of $M-I$ ? The inverse of $P$, considered as a quaternion (see remark 1 below) is



$$P^-1:=dfrac1t^2+x^2+y^2+z^2beginbmatrix-t&-x&-y&-z\x&-t&-z&y\y&z&-t&-x\z&-y&x&-tendbmatrixtag2$$



(as one can easily check by multiplication of $P$ and $P^-1$).



Therefore, as $M-I_4=dfrac2t1+t^2P=sin(a)P$ :



$$(M-I_4)^-1=dfrac1sin(a)P^-1$$



with $P^-1$ given by (2).



which is different from your formula (as it has been remarked, this formula needs to depend on $a$).



Remarks :



1) It is not surprizing to get formula (1) : it is to be related to the $4 times 4$ matrix representation of quaternions (see paragraph "Matrix representation" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quaternion) and their so-called "norm". By the way, I wouldn't be that surprised that your issue come quaternionic representations...



2) Using (1) with $t=0$, we get
$$det(A)=(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag2$$



3) Formula (1) has to be connected to the so-called Pfaffian. If we have had to compute the determinant of a skew-symmetric matrix of even order, it is good to know that there exists a formula as a square of a polynomial expression in its entries called its associated Pfaffian. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffian where you will find the following formula for order $4$ :



$$detbeginbmatrix0&a&b&c\-a&0&d&e\-b&-d&0&f\-c&-e&-f&0endbmatrix=(af-be+dc)^2$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago













3














3










3







$begingroup$

Here is a proof of the first part (inversibility of $M-I_4$)
and a computation of the inverse (though I do not get a result in the form of yours).



One obtains an efficient simplification by using half-angle formulas (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution) :



$$cos(a)=dfrac1-t^21+t^2 textand sin(a)=dfrac2t1+t^2$$



Let $N=M-I_4$.



All entries in matrix $N$ have a common factor $dfrac2t1+t^2$. Therefore we can set



$$N=dfrac2t1+t^2P textwith
P:=beginbmatrix-t&x&y&z\-x&-t&z&-y\-y&-z&-t&x\-z&y&-x&-tendbmatrix$$



Therefore, an equivalent issue is to show the invertibility of $P$.



Please note that $P=A-tI_4$ with matrix $A$ as you have defined it.



It turns out that the determinant of $P$ is very compact :



$$det(P)=(t^2 + x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag1$$



which is non-zero, excepted... exceptional cases $x=y=z=0$ and $t=0$ (the last case corresponding to angles $a=kpi, k in mathbbZ$). Set apart these cases, $P$ is always invertible.



Now, what is the inverse of $M-I$ ? The inverse of $P$, considered as a quaternion (see remark 1 below) is



$$P^-1:=dfrac1t^2+x^2+y^2+z^2beginbmatrix-t&-x&-y&-z\x&-t&-z&y\y&z&-t&-x\z&-y&x&-tendbmatrixtag2$$



(as one can easily check by multiplication of $P$ and $P^-1$).



Therefore, as $M-I_4=dfrac2t1+t^2P=sin(a)P$ :



$$(M-I_4)^-1=dfrac1sin(a)P^-1$$



with $P^-1$ given by (2).



which is different from your formula (as it has been remarked, this formula needs to depend on $a$).



Remarks :



1) It is not surprizing to get formula (1) : it is to be related to the $4 times 4$ matrix representation of quaternions (see paragraph "Matrix representation" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quaternion) and their so-called "norm". By the way, I wouldn't be that surprised that your issue come quaternionic representations...



2) Using (1) with $t=0$, we get
$$det(A)=(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag2$$



3) Formula (1) has to be connected to the so-called Pfaffian. If we have had to compute the determinant of a skew-symmetric matrix of even order, it is good to know that there exists a formula as a square of a polynomial expression in its entries called its associated Pfaffian. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffian where you will find the following formula for order $4$ :



$$detbeginbmatrix0&a&b&c\-a&0&d&e\-b&-d&0&f\-c&-e&-f&0endbmatrix=(af-be+dc)^2$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Here is a proof of the first part (inversibility of $M-I_4$)
and a computation of the inverse (though I do not get a result in the form of yours).



One obtains an efficient simplification by using half-angle formulas (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution) :



$$cos(a)=dfrac1-t^21+t^2 textand sin(a)=dfrac2t1+t^2$$



Let $N=M-I_4$.



All entries in matrix $N$ have a common factor $dfrac2t1+t^2$. Therefore we can set



$$N=dfrac2t1+t^2P textwith
P:=beginbmatrix-t&x&y&z\-x&-t&z&-y\-y&-z&-t&x\-z&y&-x&-tendbmatrix$$



Therefore, an equivalent issue is to show the invertibility of $P$.



Please note that $P=A-tI_4$ with matrix $A$ as you have defined it.



It turns out that the determinant of $P$ is very compact :



$$det(P)=(t^2 + x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag1$$



which is non-zero, excepted... exceptional cases $x=y=z=0$ and $t=0$ (the last case corresponding to angles $a=kpi, k in mathbbZ$). Set apart these cases, $P$ is always invertible.



Now, what is the inverse of $M-I$ ? The inverse of $P$, considered as a quaternion (see remark 1 below) is



$$P^-1:=dfrac1t^2+x^2+y^2+z^2beginbmatrix-t&-x&-y&-z\x&-t&-z&y\y&z&-t&-x\z&-y&x&-tendbmatrixtag2$$



(as one can easily check by multiplication of $P$ and $P^-1$).



Therefore, as $M-I_4=dfrac2t1+t^2P=sin(a)P$ :



$$(M-I_4)^-1=dfrac1sin(a)P^-1$$



with $P^-1$ given by (2).



which is different from your formula (as it has been remarked, this formula needs to depend on $a$).



Remarks :



1) It is not surprizing to get formula (1) : it is to be related to the $4 times 4$ matrix representation of quaternions (see paragraph "Matrix representation" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quaternion) and their so-called "norm". By the way, I wouldn't be that surprised that your issue come quaternionic representations...



2) Using (1) with $t=0$, we get
$$det(A)=(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)^2tag2$$



3) Formula (1) has to be connected to the so-called Pfaffian. If we have had to compute the determinant of a skew-symmetric matrix of even order, it is good to know that there exists a formula as a square of a polynomial expression in its entries called its associated Pfaffian. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pfaffian where you will find the following formula for order $4$ :



$$detbeginbmatrix0&a&b&c\-a&0&d&e\-b&-d&0&f\-c&-e&-f&0endbmatrix=(af-be+dc)^2$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 5 hours ago

























answered 6 hours ago









Jean MarieJean Marie

35.2k4 gold badges26 silver badges60 bronze badges




35.2k4 gold badges26 silver badges60 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    6 hours ago















$begingroup$
The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
The invertibility of $M-I$ was already shown in the comments (in a few lines).
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago












$begingroup$
@amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
@amsmath I agree, but the interesting thing is to "unearth" connections, here with quaternions, or as Omnomnomnom a connection with Kronecker products
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
6 hours ago












$begingroup$
I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago





$begingroup$
I am sure you can find lots of other connections. However, OP asked for a simple and short reasoning. Well, anyways. Maybe you started your answer before I was writing my short comment.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago













$begingroup$
It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
It's true that I hadn't paid attention to your calculation which is indeed a rather quick way to get the inversibility by using eigenvalues. What I wanted to say is that we can help people in different ways by showing them different approaches. I am reluctant at considering "short reasoning" as a good criteria for solutions ranking, but it's only an opinion.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
6 hours ago












$begingroup$
Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
Good point, Jean Marie. Actually, I agree. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
6 hours ago













3













$begingroup$

Here's an approach which is relatively light on computation.



As in the comments, we observe that $A^2 = -(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)I$. It follows that any rational function of $A$ can be written in the form $p I + q A$ for some $p,q$. In other words, there necessarily exist numbers $p,q$ such that
$$
(M-I)^-1 = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)^-1 = p I + q A
$$

Now, expand the product $(M-I)(pI + qA),$ and solve for the $p$ and $q$ that cause this product to equal $I$. In particular, we have
$$
(M - I)(pI + qA) = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)(pI + qA)\
= p(cos(a) - 1)I + (q[cos(a) - 1] + psin(a))A + sin(a)qA^2\
= left[p(cos(a) - 1) - sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)q right]I + left[q(cos(a) - 1) + psin(a)right]A.
$$

Thus, it suffices to find $p,q$ that solve the system of equations
$$
beginarrayccccccc
(cos(a) - 1) &p &- &sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)&q &= &1\
sin(a) &p &+ &(cos(a) - 1)&q &= &0.
endarray
$$

Solving this system yields
$$
p = frac1 - cos(a)D, quad q = fracsin(a)D
$$

where $D$ is the determinant of the coefficient matrix of this system, that is
$$
D = sin^2(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + (cos(a) - 1)^2.
$$

I see no general way of simplifying the resulting expression.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago















3













$begingroup$

Here's an approach which is relatively light on computation.



As in the comments, we observe that $A^2 = -(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)I$. It follows that any rational function of $A$ can be written in the form $p I + q A$ for some $p,q$. In other words, there necessarily exist numbers $p,q$ such that
$$
(M-I)^-1 = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)^-1 = p I + q A
$$

Now, expand the product $(M-I)(pI + qA),$ and solve for the $p$ and $q$ that cause this product to equal $I$. In particular, we have
$$
(M - I)(pI + qA) = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)(pI + qA)\
= p(cos(a) - 1)I + (q[cos(a) - 1] + psin(a))A + sin(a)qA^2\
= left[p(cos(a) - 1) - sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)q right]I + left[q(cos(a) - 1) + psin(a)right]A.
$$

Thus, it suffices to find $p,q$ that solve the system of equations
$$
beginarrayccccccc
(cos(a) - 1) &p &- &sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)&q &= &1\
sin(a) &p &+ &(cos(a) - 1)&q &= &0.
endarray
$$

Solving this system yields
$$
p = frac1 - cos(a)D, quad q = fracsin(a)D
$$

where $D$ is the determinant of the coefficient matrix of this system, that is
$$
D = sin^2(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + (cos(a) - 1)^2.
$$

I see no general way of simplifying the resulting expression.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago













3














3










3







$begingroup$

Here's an approach which is relatively light on computation.



As in the comments, we observe that $A^2 = -(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)I$. It follows that any rational function of $A$ can be written in the form $p I + q A$ for some $p,q$. In other words, there necessarily exist numbers $p,q$ such that
$$
(M-I)^-1 = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)^-1 = p I + q A
$$

Now, expand the product $(M-I)(pI + qA),$ and solve for the $p$ and $q$ that cause this product to equal $I$. In particular, we have
$$
(M - I)(pI + qA) = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)(pI + qA)\
= p(cos(a) - 1)I + (q[cos(a) - 1] + psin(a))A + sin(a)qA^2\
= left[p(cos(a) - 1) - sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)q right]I + left[q(cos(a) - 1) + psin(a)right]A.
$$

Thus, it suffices to find $p,q$ that solve the system of equations
$$
beginarrayccccccc
(cos(a) - 1) &p &- &sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)&q &= &1\
sin(a) &p &+ &(cos(a) - 1)&q &= &0.
endarray
$$

Solving this system yields
$$
p = frac1 - cos(a)D, quad q = fracsin(a)D
$$

where $D$ is the determinant of the coefficient matrix of this system, that is
$$
D = sin^2(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + (cos(a) - 1)^2.
$$

I see no general way of simplifying the resulting expression.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Here's an approach which is relatively light on computation.



As in the comments, we observe that $A^2 = -(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)I$. It follows that any rational function of $A$ can be written in the form $p I + q A$ for some $p,q$. In other words, there necessarily exist numbers $p,q$ such that
$$
(M-I)^-1 = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)^-1 = p I + q A
$$

Now, expand the product $(M-I)(pI + qA),$ and solve for the $p$ and $q$ that cause this product to equal $I$. In particular, we have
$$
(M - I)(pI + qA) = ([cos(a) - 1]I + sin(a)A)(pI + qA)\
= p(cos(a) - 1)I + (q[cos(a) - 1] + psin(a))A + sin(a)qA^2\
= left[p(cos(a) - 1) - sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)q right]I + left[q(cos(a) - 1) + psin(a)right]A.
$$

Thus, it suffices to find $p,q$ that solve the system of equations
$$
beginarrayccccccc
(cos(a) - 1) &p &- &sin(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)&q &= &1\
sin(a) &p &+ &(cos(a) - 1)&q &= &0.
endarray
$$

Solving this system yields
$$
p = frac1 - cos(a)D, quad q = fracsin(a)D
$$

where $D$ is the determinant of the coefficient matrix of this system, that is
$$
D = sin^2(a)(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) + (cos(a) - 1)^2.
$$

I see no general way of simplifying the resulting expression.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 5 hours ago

























answered 5 hours ago









OmnomnomnomOmnomnomnom

133k7 gold badges98 silver badges198 bronze badges




133k7 gold badges98 silver badges198 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago















$begingroup$
I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
$endgroup$
– amsmath
5 hours ago





$begingroup$
I have a $+$ where you have a $-$ in the expression for $D$ (just before $(cos(a)-1)^2$).
$endgroup$
– amsmath
5 hours ago













$begingroup$
@amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
@amsmath you're right; I'll see if that leads to any simplifications
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago












$begingroup$
@amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
@amsmath it doesn't, unless we know that $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1$ for instance
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago












$begingroup$
You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
5 hours ago





$begingroup$
You should make the leading minus a plus in $D$. ;-) As to the simplification: yes, you're right. I don't see a way to make it easier either. Actually, I wonder how OP came up with their false formula...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
5 hours ago













$begingroup$
@amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
@amsmath minus signs... my kryptonite, apparently
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago











2













$begingroup$

$A$ has the form $A = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix$, where $JL+LJ = 0$, $J^2 = -x^2I$, and $L^2 = (y^2+z^2)I$. Therefore,
$$
A^2 = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&JendpmatrixbeginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix = beginpmatrixJ^2-L^2&0\0&J^2-L^2endpmatrix = -r^2I_4,
$$

where $r := sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2$. Hence, for $zinmathbb C$ we have $(A-z)(A+z) = A^2-z^2I = -(r^2+z^2)I$ and thus
$$
(A-z)^-1 = -fracA+zr^2+z^2.
$$

Now, as I wrote in the comments, we have $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I + sin(a)A$. So, for $a = 2kpi$ the matrix $M-I$ is singular, whereas for $a=(2k+1)pi$ we have $M-I = -2I$. If $a$ is not one of these values,
$$
(M-I)^-1 = left[sin(a)left(A - frac1-cos(a)sin(a)right)right]^-1 = frac 1sin(a)cdotfracA+alphar^2+alpha^2,
$$

where $alpha = frac1-cos(a)sin(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago
















2













$begingroup$

$A$ has the form $A = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix$, where $JL+LJ = 0$, $J^2 = -x^2I$, and $L^2 = (y^2+z^2)I$. Therefore,
$$
A^2 = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&JendpmatrixbeginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix = beginpmatrixJ^2-L^2&0\0&J^2-L^2endpmatrix = -r^2I_4,
$$

where $r := sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2$. Hence, for $zinmathbb C$ we have $(A-z)(A+z) = A^2-z^2I = -(r^2+z^2)I$ and thus
$$
(A-z)^-1 = -fracA+zr^2+z^2.
$$

Now, as I wrote in the comments, we have $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I + sin(a)A$. So, for $a = 2kpi$ the matrix $M-I$ is singular, whereas for $a=(2k+1)pi$ we have $M-I = -2I$. If $a$ is not one of these values,
$$
(M-I)^-1 = left[sin(a)left(A - frac1-cos(a)sin(a)right)right]^-1 = frac 1sin(a)cdotfracA+alphar^2+alpha^2,
$$

where $alpha = frac1-cos(a)sin(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago














2














2










2







$begingroup$

$A$ has the form $A = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix$, where $JL+LJ = 0$, $J^2 = -x^2I$, and $L^2 = (y^2+z^2)I$. Therefore,
$$
A^2 = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&JendpmatrixbeginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix = beginpmatrixJ^2-L^2&0\0&J^2-L^2endpmatrix = -r^2I_4,
$$

where $r := sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2$. Hence, for $zinmathbb C$ we have $(A-z)(A+z) = A^2-z^2I = -(r^2+z^2)I$ and thus
$$
(A-z)^-1 = -fracA+zr^2+z^2.
$$

Now, as I wrote in the comments, we have $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I + sin(a)A$. So, for $a = 2kpi$ the matrix $M-I$ is singular, whereas for $a=(2k+1)pi$ we have $M-I = -2I$. If $a$ is not one of these values,
$$
(M-I)^-1 = left[sin(a)left(A - frac1-cos(a)sin(a)right)right]^-1 = frac 1sin(a)cdotfracA+alphar^2+alpha^2,
$$

where $alpha = frac1-cos(a)sin(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



$A$ has the form $A = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix$, where $JL+LJ = 0$, $J^2 = -x^2I$, and $L^2 = (y^2+z^2)I$. Therefore,
$$
A^2 = beginpmatrixJ&L\-L&JendpmatrixbeginpmatrixJ&L\-L&Jendpmatrix = beginpmatrixJ^2-L^2&0\0&J^2-L^2endpmatrix = -r^2I_4,
$$

where $r := sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2$. Hence, for $zinmathbb C$ we have $(A-z)(A+z) = A^2-z^2I = -(r^2+z^2)I$ and thus
$$
(A-z)^-1 = -fracA+zr^2+z^2.
$$

Now, as I wrote in the comments, we have $M-I = (cos(a)-1)I + sin(a)A$. So, for $a = 2kpi$ the matrix $M-I$ is singular, whereas for $a=(2k+1)pi$ we have $M-I = -2I$. If $a$ is not one of these values,
$$
(M-I)^-1 = left[sin(a)left(A - frac1-cos(a)sin(a)right)right]^-1 = frac 1sin(a)cdotfracA+alphar^2+alpha^2,
$$

where $alpha = frac1-cos(a)sin(a)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 5 hours ago

























answered 5 hours ago









amsmathamsmath

4,0495 silver badges21 bronze badges




4,0495 silver badges21 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago

















  • $begingroup$
    Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    5 hours ago
















$begingroup$
Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
Presumably, $A + alpha$ should be $A + alpha I$
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
5 hours ago












$begingroup$
@Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
5 hours ago





$begingroup$
@Omnomnomnom That's the short form that's commonly used by people in spectral theory.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
5 hours ago


















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