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Why does this pattern in powers happen?


Pattern puzzle helpWhy there is this kind of relation between power and factorial?Perfect powers of successive naturals: Can you always reach a constant difference?Generalize finding perfect squares by adding odd numbersFinding a pattern regarding perfect cubes.Consecutive prime powers $p^m<q^n$ such that $q^n-p^m=11$Finding unrelated numbers that are awfully closeUnexpected pattern in consecutive 7 digit “double” palindromes?Factors of a number get sparserOn numbers with small $varphi(n)/n$













4












$begingroup$


Hopefully this not to frivolous to ask, I have wondered it for years. There is a strange pattern in the differences between various power.



For example if you square the numbers from one to ten the difference between each square is the odds numbers. Similar patterns exist in the powers through 6 (and I assume all of them).



I attached an example of what I mean. Does anyone know why this occurs. For each higher power the pattern moves one to the "right"



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



migrated from stats.stackexchange.com 2 hours ago


This question came from our site for people interested in statistics, machine learning, data analysis, data mining, and data visualization.













  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$
    $endgroup$
    – Milan Stojanovic
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    1) in any consecutive pair of integer $m, m+1$, one of them is even, the other is odd. 2) an even number raised to power is an even number, an odd number raised to power is an odd number. 3) the difference of an odd and even number is odd.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    2 hours ago















4












$begingroup$


Hopefully this not to frivolous to ask, I have wondered it for years. There is a strange pattern in the differences between various power.



For example if you square the numbers from one to ten the difference between each square is the odds numbers. Similar patterns exist in the powers through 6 (and I assume all of them).



I attached an example of what I mean. Does anyone know why this occurs. For each higher power the pattern moves one to the "right"



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



migrated from stats.stackexchange.com 2 hours ago


This question came from our site for people interested in statistics, machine learning, data analysis, data mining, and data visualization.













  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$
    $endgroup$
    – Milan Stojanovic
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    1) in any consecutive pair of integer $m, m+1$, one of them is even, the other is odd. 2) an even number raised to power is an even number, an odd number raised to power is an odd number. 3) the difference of an odd and even number is odd.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    2 hours ago













4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


Hopefully this not to frivolous to ask, I have wondered it for years. There is a strange pattern in the differences between various power.



For example if you square the numbers from one to ten the difference between each square is the odds numbers. Similar patterns exist in the powers through 6 (and I assume all of them).



I attached an example of what I mean. Does anyone know why this occurs. For each higher power the pattern moves one to the "right"



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Hopefully this not to frivolous to ask, I have wondered it for years. There is a strange pattern in the differences between various power.



For example if you square the numbers from one to ten the difference between each square is the odds numbers. Similar patterns exist in the powers through 6 (and I assume all of them).



I attached an example of what I mean. Does anyone know why this occurs. For each higher power the pattern moves one to the "right"



enter image description here







elementary-number-theory square-numbers






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 hours ago









NoChance

3,79221321




3,79221321










asked 3 hours ago







user54285











migrated from stats.stackexchange.com 2 hours ago


This question came from our site for people interested in statistics, machine learning, data analysis, data mining, and data visualization.









migrated from stats.stackexchange.com 2 hours ago


This question came from our site for people interested in statistics, machine learning, data analysis, data mining, and data visualization.









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$
    $endgroup$
    – Milan Stojanovic
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    1) in any consecutive pair of integer $m, m+1$, one of them is even, the other is odd. 2) an even number raised to power is an even number, an odd number raised to power is an odd number. 3) the difference of an odd and even number is odd.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    2 hours ago












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$
    $endgroup$
    – Milan Stojanovic
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    1) in any consecutive pair of integer $m, m+1$, one of them is even, the other is odd. 2) an even number raised to power is an even number, an odd number raised to power is an odd number. 3) the difference of an odd and even number is odd.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    2 hours ago







2




2




$begingroup$
$a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$
$endgroup$
– Milan Stojanovic
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
$a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$
$endgroup$
– Milan Stojanovic
2 hours ago












$begingroup$
1) in any consecutive pair of integer $m, m+1$, one of them is even, the other is odd. 2) an even number raised to power is an even number, an odd number raised to power is an odd number. 3) the difference of an odd and even number is odd.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
1) in any consecutive pair of integer $m, m+1$, one of them is even, the other is odd. 2) an even number raised to power is an even number, an odd number raised to power is an odd number. 3) the difference of an odd and even number is odd.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
2 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

This is a well-known result analogous to the formula $$ fracd^kdx^k x^k = k!$$for differentiation of polynomials. I'll try to state it clearly:




Definition: Let the discrete derivative of a sequence $a_1, a_2, a_3, ldots$ be the sequence $a'_n := a_n+1 - a_n$.




Remark: The discrete derivative is a linear operator. That is, if $c_n = alpha a_n + beta b_n$ for some constants $alpha$ and $beta$, then $c'_n = alpha a'_n + beta b'_n$.



Notation: Iterated discrete derivatives can be notated by parenthesized superscripts; thus $c^(2)$ for $c''$, $c^(3)$ for $c'''$, and so on.




Theorem: For some $k geq 1$ fixed, let $a_n = n^k$ be the sequence of $k$th powers. Then $a_n^(k) = k!$ for all $n$.




Remark: An immediate consequence of this statement, used in a proof by induction, is that $a_n^(ell) = 0$ if $k < ell$.



Proof. The result is obvious for $k = 1$. Now assume that the result holds for all integers less than $k$. Then $$a'_n = (n+1)^k - n^k = k n^k-1 + binomk2 n^k-2 + binomk3 n^k-3 + cdots + kn + 1.$$



We know that $a_n^(k)$ is the $k-1$th discrete derivative of the RHS. Because the discrete derivative is a linear operator, we can take the derivative of each term on the RHS by itself. We know by the induction hypothesis that the $k-1$th derivative of $n^k-1$ is $(k-1)!$ and that the $k-1$th derivative of every other term in the RHS is zero, and we're done.



Note that the $k$th discrete derivative is a constant $k!$ for any polynomial with leading term $n^k$, not just the $k$th powers, as terms of smaller order drop out.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    3












    $begingroup$

    If we have a polynomial $p(x)$ of degree $n$ with coefficients $a_iinmathbbR$ then we can write this as
    $$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+dots+a_nx^n$$
    We can use the backward difference operator on this polynomial to get
    $$nabla p(x)=p(x)-p(x-1)=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)$$
    The resulting polynomial is always of degree one less than the intial polynomial which can be proven by noting that
    $$beginalign
    sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)
    &=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
    &=-a_ksum_j=0^k-1binomkjx^j(-1)^k-j+sum_k=0^n-1(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
    endalign$$

    Hence this process can be repeated on the resulting polynomial which will once again reduce the degree by one. Eventually the polynomial degree is reduced to zero in which case each term is constant and equal to the difference between the terms in the previous polynomial.



    In your case you have an initial polynomial of
    $$p(x)=x^k$$
    for some $kinmathbbN$ and hence we can see that
    $$nabla p(x)=x^k-(x-1)^k=x^k-sum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j=kx^k-1-frack(k-1)2x^k-2+dots$$
    which means that this repeated process will both reduce the degree of the polynomial by one and multiply the highest power term of the polynomial by the highest power of the previous polynomial leaving a degree zero polynomial of $k(k-1)(k-2)dots(1)=k!$ as a 'constant difference' between the corresponding degree one polynomial before it.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      3












      $begingroup$

      You are computing the finite differences of order $n-1$ of the $n^th$ powers of the integers.



      Observe that by the binomial theorem, if we compute the first order difference of $m^n$ we have



      $$(m+1)^n-m^n=nm^n-1+fracn(n-1)2m^n-2+cdots$$



      Two important facts:



      • we started from a polynomial in $m$ of degree $n$, and obtained a polynomial of degree $n-1$;


      • the leading term has been multiplied by $n$.


      If we iterate $n-1$ times, we obtain a polynomial of degree $1$ (linear) and the leading term has been multiplied by $n!$. Hence the general term is



      $$n!m+c.$$



      The $n^th$ column is the constant $n!$




      The top values in every column have a closed form given here: https://oeis.org/A028246 (consider all subsequences starting with a $1$).



      $$a(n,k) = frac1ksum_i=0^k (-1)^k-ibinom kii^n$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        3 Answers
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        active

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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        4












        $begingroup$

        This is a well-known result analogous to the formula $$ fracd^kdx^k x^k = k!$$for differentiation of polynomials. I'll try to state it clearly:




        Definition: Let the discrete derivative of a sequence $a_1, a_2, a_3, ldots$ be the sequence $a'_n := a_n+1 - a_n$.




        Remark: The discrete derivative is a linear operator. That is, if $c_n = alpha a_n + beta b_n$ for some constants $alpha$ and $beta$, then $c'_n = alpha a'_n + beta b'_n$.



        Notation: Iterated discrete derivatives can be notated by parenthesized superscripts; thus $c^(2)$ for $c''$, $c^(3)$ for $c'''$, and so on.




        Theorem: For some $k geq 1$ fixed, let $a_n = n^k$ be the sequence of $k$th powers. Then $a_n^(k) = k!$ for all $n$.




        Remark: An immediate consequence of this statement, used in a proof by induction, is that $a_n^(ell) = 0$ if $k < ell$.



        Proof. The result is obvious for $k = 1$. Now assume that the result holds for all integers less than $k$. Then $$a'_n = (n+1)^k - n^k = k n^k-1 + binomk2 n^k-2 + binomk3 n^k-3 + cdots + kn + 1.$$



        We know that $a_n^(k)$ is the $k-1$th discrete derivative of the RHS. Because the discrete derivative is a linear operator, we can take the derivative of each term on the RHS by itself. We know by the induction hypothesis that the $k-1$th derivative of $n^k-1$ is $(k-1)!$ and that the $k-1$th derivative of every other term in the RHS is zero, and we're done.



        Note that the $k$th discrete derivative is a constant $k!$ for any polynomial with leading term $n^k$, not just the $k$th powers, as terms of smaller order drop out.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$

















          4












          $begingroup$

          This is a well-known result analogous to the formula $$ fracd^kdx^k x^k = k!$$for differentiation of polynomials. I'll try to state it clearly:




          Definition: Let the discrete derivative of a sequence $a_1, a_2, a_3, ldots$ be the sequence $a'_n := a_n+1 - a_n$.




          Remark: The discrete derivative is a linear operator. That is, if $c_n = alpha a_n + beta b_n$ for some constants $alpha$ and $beta$, then $c'_n = alpha a'_n + beta b'_n$.



          Notation: Iterated discrete derivatives can be notated by parenthesized superscripts; thus $c^(2)$ for $c''$, $c^(3)$ for $c'''$, and so on.




          Theorem: For some $k geq 1$ fixed, let $a_n = n^k$ be the sequence of $k$th powers. Then $a_n^(k) = k!$ for all $n$.




          Remark: An immediate consequence of this statement, used in a proof by induction, is that $a_n^(ell) = 0$ if $k < ell$.



          Proof. The result is obvious for $k = 1$. Now assume that the result holds for all integers less than $k$. Then $$a'_n = (n+1)^k - n^k = k n^k-1 + binomk2 n^k-2 + binomk3 n^k-3 + cdots + kn + 1.$$



          We know that $a_n^(k)$ is the $k-1$th discrete derivative of the RHS. Because the discrete derivative is a linear operator, we can take the derivative of each term on the RHS by itself. We know by the induction hypothesis that the $k-1$th derivative of $n^k-1$ is $(k-1)!$ and that the $k-1$th derivative of every other term in the RHS is zero, and we're done.



          Note that the $k$th discrete derivative is a constant $k!$ for any polynomial with leading term $n^k$, not just the $k$th powers, as terms of smaller order drop out.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            This is a well-known result analogous to the formula $$ fracd^kdx^k x^k = k!$$for differentiation of polynomials. I'll try to state it clearly:




            Definition: Let the discrete derivative of a sequence $a_1, a_2, a_3, ldots$ be the sequence $a'_n := a_n+1 - a_n$.




            Remark: The discrete derivative is a linear operator. That is, if $c_n = alpha a_n + beta b_n$ for some constants $alpha$ and $beta$, then $c'_n = alpha a'_n + beta b'_n$.



            Notation: Iterated discrete derivatives can be notated by parenthesized superscripts; thus $c^(2)$ for $c''$, $c^(3)$ for $c'''$, and so on.




            Theorem: For some $k geq 1$ fixed, let $a_n = n^k$ be the sequence of $k$th powers. Then $a_n^(k) = k!$ for all $n$.




            Remark: An immediate consequence of this statement, used in a proof by induction, is that $a_n^(ell) = 0$ if $k < ell$.



            Proof. The result is obvious for $k = 1$. Now assume that the result holds for all integers less than $k$. Then $$a'_n = (n+1)^k - n^k = k n^k-1 + binomk2 n^k-2 + binomk3 n^k-3 + cdots + kn + 1.$$



            We know that $a_n^(k)$ is the $k-1$th discrete derivative of the RHS. Because the discrete derivative is a linear operator, we can take the derivative of each term on the RHS by itself. We know by the induction hypothesis that the $k-1$th derivative of $n^k-1$ is $(k-1)!$ and that the $k-1$th derivative of every other term in the RHS is zero, and we're done.



            Note that the $k$th discrete derivative is a constant $k!$ for any polynomial with leading term $n^k$, not just the $k$th powers, as terms of smaller order drop out.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            This is a well-known result analogous to the formula $$ fracd^kdx^k x^k = k!$$for differentiation of polynomials. I'll try to state it clearly:




            Definition: Let the discrete derivative of a sequence $a_1, a_2, a_3, ldots$ be the sequence $a'_n := a_n+1 - a_n$.




            Remark: The discrete derivative is a linear operator. That is, if $c_n = alpha a_n + beta b_n$ for some constants $alpha$ and $beta$, then $c'_n = alpha a'_n + beta b'_n$.



            Notation: Iterated discrete derivatives can be notated by parenthesized superscripts; thus $c^(2)$ for $c''$, $c^(3)$ for $c'''$, and so on.




            Theorem: For some $k geq 1$ fixed, let $a_n = n^k$ be the sequence of $k$th powers. Then $a_n^(k) = k!$ for all $n$.




            Remark: An immediate consequence of this statement, used in a proof by induction, is that $a_n^(ell) = 0$ if $k < ell$.



            Proof. The result is obvious for $k = 1$. Now assume that the result holds for all integers less than $k$. Then $$a'_n = (n+1)^k - n^k = k n^k-1 + binomk2 n^k-2 + binomk3 n^k-3 + cdots + kn + 1.$$



            We know that $a_n^(k)$ is the $k-1$th discrete derivative of the RHS. Because the discrete derivative is a linear operator, we can take the derivative of each term on the RHS by itself. We know by the induction hypothesis that the $k-1$th derivative of $n^k-1$ is $(k-1)!$ and that the $k-1$th derivative of every other term in the RHS is zero, and we're done.



            Note that the $k$th discrete derivative is a constant $k!$ for any polynomial with leading term $n^k$, not just the $k$th powers, as terms of smaller order drop out.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 2 hours ago









            Connor HarrisConnor Harris

            4,545724




            4,545724





















                3












                $begingroup$

                If we have a polynomial $p(x)$ of degree $n$ with coefficients $a_iinmathbbR$ then we can write this as
                $$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+dots+a_nx^n$$
                We can use the backward difference operator on this polynomial to get
                $$nabla p(x)=p(x)-p(x-1)=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)$$
                The resulting polynomial is always of degree one less than the intial polynomial which can be proven by noting that
                $$beginalign
                sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)
                &=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                &=-a_ksum_j=0^k-1binomkjx^j(-1)^k-j+sum_k=0^n-1(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                endalign$$

                Hence this process can be repeated on the resulting polynomial which will once again reduce the degree by one. Eventually the polynomial degree is reduced to zero in which case each term is constant and equal to the difference between the terms in the previous polynomial.



                In your case you have an initial polynomial of
                $$p(x)=x^k$$
                for some $kinmathbbN$ and hence we can see that
                $$nabla p(x)=x^k-(x-1)^k=x^k-sum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j=kx^k-1-frack(k-1)2x^k-2+dots$$
                which means that this repeated process will both reduce the degree of the polynomial by one and multiply the highest power term of the polynomial by the highest power of the previous polynomial leaving a degree zero polynomial of $k(k-1)(k-2)dots(1)=k!$ as a 'constant difference' between the corresponding degree one polynomial before it.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  If we have a polynomial $p(x)$ of degree $n$ with coefficients $a_iinmathbbR$ then we can write this as
                  $$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+dots+a_nx^n$$
                  We can use the backward difference operator on this polynomial to get
                  $$nabla p(x)=p(x)-p(x-1)=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)$$
                  The resulting polynomial is always of degree one less than the intial polynomial which can be proven by noting that
                  $$beginalign
                  sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)
                  &=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                  &=-a_ksum_j=0^k-1binomkjx^j(-1)^k-j+sum_k=0^n-1(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                  endalign$$

                  Hence this process can be repeated on the resulting polynomial which will once again reduce the degree by one. Eventually the polynomial degree is reduced to zero in which case each term is constant and equal to the difference between the terms in the previous polynomial.



                  In your case you have an initial polynomial of
                  $$p(x)=x^k$$
                  for some $kinmathbbN$ and hence we can see that
                  $$nabla p(x)=x^k-(x-1)^k=x^k-sum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j=kx^k-1-frack(k-1)2x^k-2+dots$$
                  which means that this repeated process will both reduce the degree of the polynomial by one and multiply the highest power term of the polynomial by the highest power of the previous polynomial leaving a degree zero polynomial of $k(k-1)(k-2)dots(1)=k!$ as a 'constant difference' between the corresponding degree one polynomial before it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$

                    If we have a polynomial $p(x)$ of degree $n$ with coefficients $a_iinmathbbR$ then we can write this as
                    $$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+dots+a_nx^n$$
                    We can use the backward difference operator on this polynomial to get
                    $$nabla p(x)=p(x)-p(x-1)=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)$$
                    The resulting polynomial is always of degree one less than the intial polynomial which can be proven by noting that
                    $$beginalign
                    sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)
                    &=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                    &=-a_ksum_j=0^k-1binomkjx^j(-1)^k-j+sum_k=0^n-1(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                    endalign$$

                    Hence this process can be repeated on the resulting polynomial which will once again reduce the degree by one. Eventually the polynomial degree is reduced to zero in which case each term is constant and equal to the difference between the terms in the previous polynomial.



                    In your case you have an initial polynomial of
                    $$p(x)=x^k$$
                    for some $kinmathbbN$ and hence we can see that
                    $$nabla p(x)=x^k-(x-1)^k=x^k-sum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j=kx^k-1-frack(k-1)2x^k-2+dots$$
                    which means that this repeated process will both reduce the degree of the polynomial by one and multiply the highest power term of the polynomial by the highest power of the previous polynomial leaving a degree zero polynomial of $k(k-1)(k-2)dots(1)=k!$ as a 'constant difference' between the corresponding degree one polynomial before it.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    If we have a polynomial $p(x)$ of degree $n$ with coefficients $a_iinmathbbR$ then we can write this as
                    $$p(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+dots+a_nx^n$$
                    We can use the backward difference operator on this polynomial to get
                    $$nabla p(x)=p(x)-p(x-1)=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)$$
                    The resulting polynomial is always of degree one less than the intial polynomial which can be proven by noting that
                    $$beginalign
                    sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_k(x-1)^k)
                    &=sum_k=0^n(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                    &=-a_ksum_j=0^k-1binomkjx^j(-1)^k-j+sum_k=0^n-1(a_kx^k-a_ksum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j)\
                    endalign$$

                    Hence this process can be repeated on the resulting polynomial which will once again reduce the degree by one. Eventually the polynomial degree is reduced to zero in which case each term is constant and equal to the difference between the terms in the previous polynomial.



                    In your case you have an initial polynomial of
                    $$p(x)=x^k$$
                    for some $kinmathbbN$ and hence we can see that
                    $$nabla p(x)=x^k-(x-1)^k=x^k-sum_j=0^kbinomkjx^j(-1)^k-j=kx^k-1-frack(k-1)2x^k-2+dots$$
                    which means that this repeated process will both reduce the degree of the polynomial by one and multiply the highest power term of the polynomial by the highest power of the previous polynomial leaving a degree zero polynomial of $k(k-1)(k-2)dots(1)=k!$ as a 'constant difference' between the corresponding degree one polynomial before it.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 2 hours ago









                    Peter ForemanPeter Foreman

                    9,5881321




                    9,5881321





















                        3












                        $begingroup$

                        You are computing the finite differences of order $n-1$ of the $n^th$ powers of the integers.



                        Observe that by the binomial theorem, if we compute the first order difference of $m^n$ we have



                        $$(m+1)^n-m^n=nm^n-1+fracn(n-1)2m^n-2+cdots$$



                        Two important facts:



                        • we started from a polynomial in $m$ of degree $n$, and obtained a polynomial of degree $n-1$;


                        • the leading term has been multiplied by $n$.


                        If we iterate $n-1$ times, we obtain a polynomial of degree $1$ (linear) and the leading term has been multiplied by $n!$. Hence the general term is



                        $$n!m+c.$$



                        The $n^th$ column is the constant $n!$




                        The top values in every column have a closed form given here: https://oeis.org/A028246 (consider all subsequences starting with a $1$).



                        $$a(n,k) = frac1ksum_i=0^k (-1)^k-ibinom kii^n$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          3












                          $begingroup$

                          You are computing the finite differences of order $n-1$ of the $n^th$ powers of the integers.



                          Observe that by the binomial theorem, if we compute the first order difference of $m^n$ we have



                          $$(m+1)^n-m^n=nm^n-1+fracn(n-1)2m^n-2+cdots$$



                          Two important facts:



                          • we started from a polynomial in $m$ of degree $n$, and obtained a polynomial of degree $n-1$;


                          • the leading term has been multiplied by $n$.


                          If we iterate $n-1$ times, we obtain a polynomial of degree $1$ (linear) and the leading term has been multiplied by $n!$. Hence the general term is



                          $$n!m+c.$$



                          The $n^th$ column is the constant $n!$




                          The top values in every column have a closed form given here: https://oeis.org/A028246 (consider all subsequences starting with a $1$).



                          $$a(n,k) = frac1ksum_i=0^k (-1)^k-ibinom kii^n$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            3












                            3








                            3





                            $begingroup$

                            You are computing the finite differences of order $n-1$ of the $n^th$ powers of the integers.



                            Observe that by the binomial theorem, if we compute the first order difference of $m^n$ we have



                            $$(m+1)^n-m^n=nm^n-1+fracn(n-1)2m^n-2+cdots$$



                            Two important facts:



                            • we started from a polynomial in $m$ of degree $n$, and obtained a polynomial of degree $n-1$;


                            • the leading term has been multiplied by $n$.


                            If we iterate $n-1$ times, we obtain a polynomial of degree $1$ (linear) and the leading term has been multiplied by $n!$. Hence the general term is



                            $$n!m+c.$$



                            The $n^th$ column is the constant $n!$




                            The top values in every column have a closed form given here: https://oeis.org/A028246 (consider all subsequences starting with a $1$).



                            $$a(n,k) = frac1ksum_i=0^k (-1)^k-ibinom kii^n$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            You are computing the finite differences of order $n-1$ of the $n^th$ powers of the integers.



                            Observe that by the binomial theorem, if we compute the first order difference of $m^n$ we have



                            $$(m+1)^n-m^n=nm^n-1+fracn(n-1)2m^n-2+cdots$$



                            Two important facts:



                            • we started from a polynomial in $m$ of degree $n$, and obtained a polynomial of degree $n-1$;


                            • the leading term has been multiplied by $n$.


                            If we iterate $n-1$ times, we obtain a polynomial of degree $1$ (linear) and the leading term has been multiplied by $n!$. Hence the general term is



                            $$n!m+c.$$



                            The $n^th$ column is the constant $n!$




                            The top values in every column have a closed form given here: https://oeis.org/A028246 (consider all subsequences starting with a $1$).



                            $$a(n,k) = frac1ksum_i=0^k (-1)^k-ibinom kii^n$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited 2 hours ago

























                            answered 2 hours ago









                            Yves DaoustYves Daoust

                            135k676234




                            135k676234



























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