What is the best linguistic term for describing the kw > p / gw > b change, and its usual companion s > hWhat's the best term for the group of concepts pertaining to verbs which includes tense, mood, and aspect?What is a term for the use of two scripts in writing?The term for compounds mixed from different languagesWhat is the linguistic term for an environment where parents teach a second language to their children in lieu of the parents' native language?Linguistic term for repeating a noun and replacing the first consonant with MIs there a term for “lexeme-describing grammatical feature”?What's the term for a word which contains an affix?What is the correct term for reading hieroglyphs ideographically in a different language (if there is a term for it)?What is the linguistic term for re-writing a dialect text to standard language?Is there a specific linguistic term for the following practice of constructing new words/characters?

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What is the best linguistic term for describing the kw > p / gw > b change, and its usual companion s > h


What's the best term for the group of concepts pertaining to verbs which includes tense, mood, and aspect?What is a term for the use of two scripts in writing?The term for compounds mixed from different languagesWhat is the linguistic term for an environment where parents teach a second language to their children in lieu of the parents' native language?Linguistic term for repeating a noun and replacing the first consonant with MIs there a term for “lexeme-describing grammatical feature”?What's the term for a word which contains an affix?What is the correct term for reading hieroglyphs ideographically in a different language (if there is a term for it)?What is the linguistic term for re-writing a dialect text to standard language?Is there a specific linguistic term for the following practice of constructing new words/characters?













3















Celtic, Italic, Greek and several other IE languages have a P- and a Q-variety (from kw > p and gw > b). The P-variety usually also has h for ancient s.
What would be the best linguistic term for describing this combined phenomenon? Labialization? Develarization? Lenition?










share|improve this question









New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.














  • 1





    I assume you mean "in Indo-European", since terminological practices outside of IE historical studies are not necessarily the same.

    – user6726
    9 hours ago











  • Not including s>h, the changes are assimilations (of place). Isn't that obvious? The consonants become labial before labial w.

    – Greg Lee
    7 hours ago






  • 2





    The two processes are unrelated. Some languages have a labiovelar > labial change, some languages have debuccalization of s, some languages have both but that doesn't mean they're one phenomenon.

    – TKR
    7 hours ago






  • 1





    @GregLee In the traditional view, the ancestors of all these languages had a truly labiovelar phoneme /kʷ/ rather than a sequence /kw/.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago











  • @Draconis, So? Are you saying the k can't assimilate to the w if k and w are part of a single phoneme? If so, why?

    – Greg Lee
    4 hours ago















3















Celtic, Italic, Greek and several other IE languages have a P- and a Q-variety (from kw > p and gw > b). The P-variety usually also has h for ancient s.
What would be the best linguistic term for describing this combined phenomenon? Labialization? Develarization? Lenition?










share|improve this question









New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.














  • 1





    I assume you mean "in Indo-European", since terminological practices outside of IE historical studies are not necessarily the same.

    – user6726
    9 hours ago











  • Not including s>h, the changes are assimilations (of place). Isn't that obvious? The consonants become labial before labial w.

    – Greg Lee
    7 hours ago






  • 2





    The two processes are unrelated. Some languages have a labiovelar > labial change, some languages have debuccalization of s, some languages have both but that doesn't mean they're one phenomenon.

    – TKR
    7 hours ago






  • 1





    @GregLee In the traditional view, the ancestors of all these languages had a truly labiovelar phoneme /kʷ/ rather than a sequence /kw/.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago











  • @Draconis, So? Are you saying the k can't assimilate to the w if k and w are part of a single phoneme? If so, why?

    – Greg Lee
    4 hours ago













3












3








3








Celtic, Italic, Greek and several other IE languages have a P- and a Q-variety (from kw > p and gw > b). The P-variety usually also has h for ancient s.
What would be the best linguistic term for describing this combined phenomenon? Labialization? Develarization? Lenition?










share|improve this question









New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Celtic, Italic, Greek and several other IE languages have a P- and a Q-variety (from kw > p and gw > b). The P-variety usually also has h for ancient s.
What would be the best linguistic term for describing this combined phenomenon? Labialization? Develarization? Lenition?







phonology terminology indo-european sound-change






share|improve this question









New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.










share|improve this question









New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 9 hours ago









jknappen

12.1k23155




12.1k23155






New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








asked 9 hours ago









Eduard Selleslagh-SuykensEduard Selleslagh-Suykens

161




161




New contributor



Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




New contributor




Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









  • 1





    I assume you mean "in Indo-European", since terminological practices outside of IE historical studies are not necessarily the same.

    – user6726
    9 hours ago











  • Not including s>h, the changes are assimilations (of place). Isn't that obvious? The consonants become labial before labial w.

    – Greg Lee
    7 hours ago






  • 2





    The two processes are unrelated. Some languages have a labiovelar > labial change, some languages have debuccalization of s, some languages have both but that doesn't mean they're one phenomenon.

    – TKR
    7 hours ago






  • 1





    @GregLee In the traditional view, the ancestors of all these languages had a truly labiovelar phoneme /kʷ/ rather than a sequence /kw/.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago











  • @Draconis, So? Are you saying the k can't assimilate to the w if k and w are part of a single phoneme? If so, why?

    – Greg Lee
    4 hours ago












  • 1





    I assume you mean "in Indo-European", since terminological practices outside of IE historical studies are not necessarily the same.

    – user6726
    9 hours ago











  • Not including s>h, the changes are assimilations (of place). Isn't that obvious? The consonants become labial before labial w.

    – Greg Lee
    7 hours ago






  • 2





    The two processes are unrelated. Some languages have a labiovelar > labial change, some languages have debuccalization of s, some languages have both but that doesn't mean they're one phenomenon.

    – TKR
    7 hours ago






  • 1





    @GregLee In the traditional view, the ancestors of all these languages had a truly labiovelar phoneme /kʷ/ rather than a sequence /kw/.

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago











  • @Draconis, So? Are you saying the k can't assimilate to the w if k and w are part of a single phoneme? If so, why?

    – Greg Lee
    4 hours ago







1




1





I assume you mean "in Indo-European", since terminological practices outside of IE historical studies are not necessarily the same.

– user6726
9 hours ago





I assume you mean "in Indo-European", since terminological practices outside of IE historical studies are not necessarily the same.

– user6726
9 hours ago













Not including s>h, the changes are assimilations (of place). Isn't that obvious? The consonants become labial before labial w.

– Greg Lee
7 hours ago





Not including s>h, the changes are assimilations (of place). Isn't that obvious? The consonants become labial before labial w.

– Greg Lee
7 hours ago




2




2





The two processes are unrelated. Some languages have a labiovelar > labial change, some languages have debuccalization of s, some languages have both but that doesn't mean they're one phenomenon.

– TKR
7 hours ago





The two processes are unrelated. Some languages have a labiovelar > labial change, some languages have debuccalization of s, some languages have both but that doesn't mean they're one phenomenon.

– TKR
7 hours ago




1




1





@GregLee In the traditional view, the ancestors of all these languages had a truly labiovelar phoneme /kʷ/ rather than a sequence /kw/.

– Draconis
5 hours ago





@GregLee In the traditional view, the ancestors of all these languages had a truly labiovelar phoneme /kʷ/ rather than a sequence /kw/.

– Draconis
5 hours ago













@Draconis, So? Are you saying the k can't assimilate to the w if k and w are part of a single phoneme? If so, why?

– Greg Lee
4 hours ago





@Draconis, So? Are you saying the k can't assimilate to the w if k and w are part of a single phoneme? If so, why?

– Greg Lee
4 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3














The change from /s/ to /h/ is called debuccalization, from Latin bucca, "mouth". The name is generally applied to any change that turns a non-glottal sound glottal, since it's moving the articulation "out of the mouth"; another example is English /t/[ʔ].



The change from /kʷ/ to /p/ doesn't have a universally-accepted name in my experience; I've seen it called both labialization and develarization (since the labiovelar consonant is losing its velar closure and becoming purely labial).



I'm not aware of any real correlation between the two sound changes; I know they both happened in some varieties of Greek, but initial /s//h/ was universal in Hellenic, and /kʷ//p/ was less consistent; /s//h/ didn't happen word-internally or finally, either. Similarly, Romanian had develarization, but not /s//h/: consider Latin socium → Romanian soț, with the original /s/ intact.






share|improve this answer

























  • /kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

    – TKR
    5 hours ago











  • @TKR Fair; fixed

    – Draconis
    4 hours ago











  • "Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

    – TKR
    3 hours ago











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









3














The change from /s/ to /h/ is called debuccalization, from Latin bucca, "mouth". The name is generally applied to any change that turns a non-glottal sound glottal, since it's moving the articulation "out of the mouth"; another example is English /t/[ʔ].



The change from /kʷ/ to /p/ doesn't have a universally-accepted name in my experience; I've seen it called both labialization and develarization (since the labiovelar consonant is losing its velar closure and becoming purely labial).



I'm not aware of any real correlation between the two sound changes; I know they both happened in some varieties of Greek, but initial /s//h/ was universal in Hellenic, and /kʷ//p/ was less consistent; /s//h/ didn't happen word-internally or finally, either. Similarly, Romanian had develarization, but not /s//h/: consider Latin socium → Romanian soț, with the original /s/ intact.






share|improve this answer

























  • /kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

    – TKR
    5 hours ago











  • @TKR Fair; fixed

    – Draconis
    4 hours ago











  • "Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

    – TKR
    3 hours ago















3














The change from /s/ to /h/ is called debuccalization, from Latin bucca, "mouth". The name is generally applied to any change that turns a non-glottal sound glottal, since it's moving the articulation "out of the mouth"; another example is English /t/[ʔ].



The change from /kʷ/ to /p/ doesn't have a universally-accepted name in my experience; I've seen it called both labialization and develarization (since the labiovelar consonant is losing its velar closure and becoming purely labial).



I'm not aware of any real correlation between the two sound changes; I know they both happened in some varieties of Greek, but initial /s//h/ was universal in Hellenic, and /kʷ//p/ was less consistent; /s//h/ didn't happen word-internally or finally, either. Similarly, Romanian had develarization, but not /s//h/: consider Latin socium → Romanian soț, with the original /s/ intact.






share|improve this answer

























  • /kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

    – TKR
    5 hours ago











  • @TKR Fair; fixed

    – Draconis
    4 hours ago











  • "Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

    – TKR
    3 hours ago













3












3








3







The change from /s/ to /h/ is called debuccalization, from Latin bucca, "mouth". The name is generally applied to any change that turns a non-glottal sound glottal, since it's moving the articulation "out of the mouth"; another example is English /t/[ʔ].



The change from /kʷ/ to /p/ doesn't have a universally-accepted name in my experience; I've seen it called both labialization and develarization (since the labiovelar consonant is losing its velar closure and becoming purely labial).



I'm not aware of any real correlation between the two sound changes; I know they both happened in some varieties of Greek, but initial /s//h/ was universal in Hellenic, and /kʷ//p/ was less consistent; /s//h/ didn't happen word-internally or finally, either. Similarly, Romanian had develarization, but not /s//h/: consider Latin socium → Romanian soț, with the original /s/ intact.






share|improve this answer















The change from /s/ to /h/ is called debuccalization, from Latin bucca, "mouth". The name is generally applied to any change that turns a non-glottal sound glottal, since it's moving the articulation "out of the mouth"; another example is English /t/[ʔ].



The change from /kʷ/ to /p/ doesn't have a universally-accepted name in my experience; I've seen it called both labialization and develarization (since the labiovelar consonant is losing its velar closure and becoming purely labial).



I'm not aware of any real correlation between the two sound changes; I know they both happened in some varieties of Greek, but initial /s//h/ was universal in Hellenic, and /kʷ//p/ was less consistent; /s//h/ didn't happen word-internally or finally, either. Similarly, Romanian had develarization, but not /s//h/: consider Latin socium → Romanian soț, with the original /s/ intact.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 4 hours ago

























answered 5 hours ago









DraconisDraconis

15k12361




15k12361












  • /kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

    – TKR
    5 hours ago











  • @TKR Fair; fixed

    – Draconis
    4 hours ago











  • "Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

    – TKR
    3 hours ago

















  • /kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

    – TKR
    5 hours ago











  • @TKR Fair; fixed

    – Draconis
    4 hours ago











  • "Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

    – TKR
    3 hours ago
















/kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

– TKR
5 hours ago





/kʷ/ > /p/ happened in all Greek dialects, just not under the same conditions.

– TKR
5 hours ago













@TKR Fair; fixed

– Draconis
4 hours ago





@TKR Fair; fixed

– Draconis
4 hours ago













"Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

– TKR
3 hours ago





"Fusion" is a more general term for the /kʷ/ > /p/ type change: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fusion_(phonetics)

– TKR
3 hours ago










Eduard Selleslagh-Suykens is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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