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What are the conditions for RAA?
What are the necessary conditions for an action to be regarded as a free choice?Is “nothing” easy to understand?Succinct argument for the fundamental role of binary digits as information unitsConditions for DeductionProof of a Conditional and Discharged AssumptionsAre all sufficient conditions necessary?When does ℱx ≡ (x)ℱx ? What if x has the same domain in both?Satisfaction/validity and variable assignmentsWe do everything for pleasureWhy did we define vacuous statements as true rather than false?
My textbook states that:
In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:
1 (1) P A
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?
logic propositional-logic
New contributor
add a comment |
My textbook states that:
In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:
1 (1) P A
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?
logic propositional-logic
New contributor
You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
10 hours ago
add a comment |
My textbook states that:
In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:
1 (1) P A
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?
logic propositional-logic
New contributor
My textbook states that:
In this case, however, what about situations where we can get Q ^ ~Q (sorry, unfamiliar with this formatting) without depending on P? For instance, the proof of EFQ:
1 (1) P A
2 (2) ~P A
3 (3) ~Q A
1,2 (4) P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2 (5) ~~Q 3,4 RAA
1,2 (6) Q 5 DN
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving? If we take the above definition of RAA to be true, don't we need 3 to be a dependency of P ^ ~P?
logic propositional-logic
logic propositional-logic
New contributor
New contributor
New contributor
asked 11 hours ago
user538118user538118
132
132
New contributor
New contributor
You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
10 hours ago
add a comment |
You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
10 hours ago
You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
10 hours ago
You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
10 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:
If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P
If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
add a comment |
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?
Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:
1 (1) P Ⱶ P A
2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:
If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P
If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
add a comment |
It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:
If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P
If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
add a comment |
It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:
If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P
If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).
It only seems like a problem if we think the set Γ is consistent, in which case we feel like it's P which "makes" the premises inconsistent, and so must be used in the proof. But if Γ is already inconsistent, then we don't need to use P at all. Think about it in cases:
If Γ is consistent, and Γ, P ⊢ Q ∧ ¬Q, then Γ, P is inconsistent, so that Γ ⊢ ¬P
If, on the other hand, Γ is already inconsistent (as in your example proof), then Γ ⊢ ¬P anyways (since inconsistent sets of statements can prove anything).
edited 9 hours ago
answered 10 hours ago
AdamAdam
874112
874112
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
add a comment |
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Aha that makes sense! Thank you.
– user538118
9 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
Happy it helped :)
– Adam
7 hours ago
add a comment |
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?
Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:
1 (1) P Ⱶ P A
2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN
add a comment |
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?
Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:
1 (1) P Ⱶ P A
2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN
add a comment |
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?
Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:
1 (1) P Ⱶ P A
2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN
Why isn't it a problem that line 5 does not depend on line 3, when it is the negation of line 3 that we are proving?
Because the rule of RAA states that whenever you have Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P , then you may infer that Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Now, as Γ Ⱶ P ^ ~P when Γ is P, ~P, therefore we can add any additional premise, such as ~Q, and obtain the required sequent so as to be able to apply Reduction To Absurdity: Γ, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P therefore Γ Ⱶ ~~Q
Here's the full sequent notation for the proof:
1 (1) P Ⱶ P A
2 (2) ~P Ⱶ ~P A
3 (3) ~Q Ⱶ ~Q A
1,2 (4) P, ~P Ⱶ P ^ ~P 1^2
1,2,3 (X) P, ~P, ~Q Ⱶ P ^ ~P 3,4 (skipped this line)
1,2 (5) P, ~P Ⱶ ~~Q X RAA (discharges assumption of ~Q)
1,2 (6) P, ~P Ⱶ Q 5 DN
answered 1 hour ago
Graham KempGraham Kemp
1,151110
1,151110
add a comment |
add a comment |
user538118 is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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You have only exchange P and Q... You have derived P ^ ~P from ~Q. Thus, apply RAA rule to get ~~Q.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
10 hours ago