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Alternative axioms for groups.


Group identities and inversesUniqueness of Inverses in Groups Implies Associativity Holds?Concepts of left group and right group.Prove that (G,*) is a group.Prove an alternative definition of group (which replaces the identity & inverse axioms with another)Is there a non-associative muliplicative closed set, with two-sided inverses and a two-sided identity?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty
margin-bottom:0;

.everyonelovesstackoverflowposition:absolute;height:1px;width:1px;opacity:0;top:0;left:0;pointer-events:none;








6












$begingroup$


The usual axioms I've seen for a group are: associativity; existence of two-sided identity; existence of two-sided inverses for all elements.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ae=a=ea$$
$$forall ain G exists a'in G: aa'=e=a'a$$



I recently came across a different axiomatisation, and there were no proofs of equivalence. They were: associativity; existence of left-identity; existence of left-inverses.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ea=a$$
$$forall ain G, exists a'in G: a'a=e$$



Are these equivalent? I kind of doubt it, since we have associative semigroups with left but not right identities, but maybe the left-inverses part changes things.



There was a proof that given these axioms, a left-inverse is a right-inverse, and hence that the original inverses axiom is proven, but what about right-identity?



Proof:
Let $gin G$ then $g$ has a left inverse, call it $g'in G$ and this too has a left inverse, call it $g''in G$. Then, $g'g=e$, $g''g'=e$ and so
$$gg'=egg'=g''g'gg'=g''g'=e$$
so $g'$ is the right-inverse of $g$ also.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    All semigroups are associative.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, fair point on language. I meant to emphasise that these satisfy 2/3 of the alternative group axioms.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The word "magma" would be more appropriate then.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I can edit if you like, but do you have any thoughts on the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A left identity $e$ satisfies, given the existence of inverses, $ae=aa'a=ea=a$, for $ain G$
    $endgroup$
    – AnotherJohnDoe
    8 hours ago


















6












$begingroup$


The usual axioms I've seen for a group are: associativity; existence of two-sided identity; existence of two-sided inverses for all elements.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ae=a=ea$$
$$forall ain G exists a'in G: aa'=e=a'a$$



I recently came across a different axiomatisation, and there were no proofs of equivalence. They were: associativity; existence of left-identity; existence of left-inverses.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ea=a$$
$$forall ain G, exists a'in G: a'a=e$$



Are these equivalent? I kind of doubt it, since we have associative semigroups with left but not right identities, but maybe the left-inverses part changes things.



There was a proof that given these axioms, a left-inverse is a right-inverse, and hence that the original inverses axiom is proven, but what about right-identity?



Proof:
Let $gin G$ then $g$ has a left inverse, call it $g'in G$ and this too has a left inverse, call it $g''in G$. Then, $g'g=e$, $g''g'=e$ and so
$$gg'=egg'=g''g'gg'=g''g'=e$$
so $g'$ is the right-inverse of $g$ also.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    All semigroups are associative.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, fair point on language. I meant to emphasise that these satisfy 2/3 of the alternative group axioms.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The word "magma" would be more appropriate then.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I can edit if you like, but do you have any thoughts on the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A left identity $e$ satisfies, given the existence of inverses, $ae=aa'a=ea=a$, for $ain G$
    $endgroup$
    – AnotherJohnDoe
    8 hours ago














6












6








6





$begingroup$


The usual axioms I've seen for a group are: associativity; existence of two-sided identity; existence of two-sided inverses for all elements.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ae=a=ea$$
$$forall ain G exists a'in G: aa'=e=a'a$$



I recently came across a different axiomatisation, and there were no proofs of equivalence. They were: associativity; existence of left-identity; existence of left-inverses.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ea=a$$
$$forall ain G, exists a'in G: a'a=e$$



Are these equivalent? I kind of doubt it, since we have associative semigroups with left but not right identities, but maybe the left-inverses part changes things.



There was a proof that given these axioms, a left-inverse is a right-inverse, and hence that the original inverses axiom is proven, but what about right-identity?



Proof:
Let $gin G$ then $g$ has a left inverse, call it $g'in G$ and this too has a left inverse, call it $g''in G$. Then, $g'g=e$, $g''g'=e$ and so
$$gg'=egg'=g''g'gg'=g''g'=e$$
so $g'$ is the right-inverse of $g$ also.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The usual axioms I've seen for a group are: associativity; existence of two-sided identity; existence of two-sided inverses for all elements.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ae=a=ea$$
$$forall ain G exists a'in G: aa'=e=a'a$$



I recently came across a different axiomatisation, and there were no proofs of equivalence. They were: associativity; existence of left-identity; existence of left-inverses.



$$forall a,b,cin G: aleft(bcright)=left(abright)c$$
$$exists ein G, forall ain G: ea=a$$
$$forall ain G, exists a'in G: a'a=e$$



Are these equivalent? I kind of doubt it, since we have associative semigroups with left but not right identities, but maybe the left-inverses part changes things.



There was a proof that given these axioms, a left-inverse is a right-inverse, and hence that the original inverses axiom is proven, but what about right-identity?



Proof:
Let $gin G$ then $g$ has a left inverse, call it $g'in G$ and this too has a left inverse, call it $g''in G$. Then, $g'g=e$, $g''g'=e$ and so
$$gg'=egg'=g''g'gg'=g''g'=e$$
so $g'$ is the right-inverse of $g$ also.







group-theory axioms






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago







Joshua Tilley

















asked 8 hours ago









Joshua TilleyJoshua Tilley

6533 silver badges13 bronze badges




6533 silver badges13 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    All semigroups are associative.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, fair point on language. I meant to emphasise that these satisfy 2/3 of the alternative group axioms.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The word "magma" would be more appropriate then.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I can edit if you like, but do you have any thoughts on the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A left identity $e$ satisfies, given the existence of inverses, $ae=aa'a=ea=a$, for $ain G$
    $endgroup$
    – AnotherJohnDoe
    8 hours ago

















  • $begingroup$
    All semigroups are associative.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, fair point on language. I meant to emphasise that these satisfy 2/3 of the alternative group axioms.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The word "magma" would be more appropriate then.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I can edit if you like, but do you have any thoughts on the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    A left identity $e$ satisfies, given the existence of inverses, $ae=aa'a=ea=a$, for $ain G$
    $endgroup$
    – AnotherJohnDoe
    8 hours ago
















$begingroup$
All semigroups are associative.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
All semigroups are associative.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
Yes, fair point on language. I meant to emphasise that these satisfy 2/3 of the alternative group axioms.
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
Yes, fair point on language. I meant to emphasise that these satisfy 2/3 of the alternative group axioms.
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
The word "magma" would be more appropriate then.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
The word "magma" would be more appropriate then.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
I can edit if you like, but do you have any thoughts on the question?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
I can edit if you like, but do you have any thoughts on the question?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago




2




2




$begingroup$
A left identity $e$ satisfies, given the existence of inverses, $ae=aa'a=ea=a$, for $ain G$
$endgroup$
– AnotherJohnDoe
8 hours ago





$begingroup$
A left identity $e$ satisfies, given the existence of inverses, $ae=aa'a=ea=a$, for $ain G$
$endgroup$
– AnotherJohnDoe
8 hours ago











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















6














$begingroup$

I agree with the proof that the left inverse (wrt the left identity) is also a right inverse.



Now let $e$ be the left inverse and $g in G$. Then



$$ge = g(g'g) = (gg')g = eg= g$$ where we use that $g'$ is both-sided.



Then $e$ is also a right identity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









6














$begingroup$

I agree with the proof that the left inverse (wrt the left identity) is also a right inverse.



Now let $e$ be the left inverse and $g in G$. Then



$$ge = g(g'g) = (gg')g = eg= g$$ where we use that $g'$ is both-sided.



Then $e$ is also a right identity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago
















6














$begingroup$

I agree with the proof that the left inverse (wrt the left identity) is also a right inverse.



Now let $e$ be the left inverse and $g in G$. Then



$$ge = g(g'g) = (gg')g = eg= g$$ where we use that $g'$ is both-sided.



Then $e$ is also a right identity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago














6














6










6







$begingroup$

I agree with the proof that the left inverse (wrt the left identity) is also a right inverse.



Now let $e$ be the left inverse and $g in G$. Then



$$ge = g(g'g) = (gg')g = eg= g$$ where we use that $g'$ is both-sided.



Then $e$ is also a right identity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



I agree with the proof that the left inverse (wrt the left identity) is also a right inverse.



Now let $e$ be the left inverse and $g in G$. Then



$$ge = g(g'g) = (gg')g = eg= g$$ where we use that $g'$ is both-sided.



Then $e$ is also a right identity.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 8 hours ago









Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

133k4 gold badges53 silver badges140 bronze badges




133k4 gold badges53 silver badges140 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago

















  • $begingroup$
    There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Joshua Tilley
    8 hours ago
















$begingroup$
There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
There we go! Nice, didn't see that myself. Guess I find it a little odd to establish that inverses are two sided before identity is, since what is a right-inverse if the identity isn't two sided?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
@JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
@JoshuaTilley you work with the inverse wrt the left-identity (the only one we have at the outset) and $g'$ is two-sided for that and that very fact then enables this double identity, i.e. that $e$ is identity from the right too.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago





$begingroup$
I understand the argument. My point is that on its own, $aa'=e$ for an arbitrary left-identity $e$ does not make $a'$ behave as a right-inverse, that was my point. Of course it does given the other requirements, as per your answer.
$endgroup$
– Joshua Tilley
8 hours ago



















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