Is there an strict difference between syntax and semantics?Is there a difference between plurality in semantics and in morphology?Is the commutative CFG in the mathematical linguistics literature?What's the difference between syntax and grammar?Why semantics can't be the input to syntaxWhat is the relationship between syntax and semantics?Syntax-semantics interfaceCan syntax be part of semantics?Truth conditional semantics and wffs

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Is there an strict difference between syntax and semantics?


Is there a difference between plurality in semantics and in morphology?Is the commutative CFG in the mathematical linguistics literature?What's the difference between syntax and grammar?Why semantics can't be the input to syntaxWhat is the relationship between syntax and semantics?Syntax-semantics interfaceCan syntax be part of semantics?Truth conditional semantics and wffs






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2

















On many places I may read that syntax is about structure, and semantics is about meaning, and this makes sense. But, lets think of the canonical example




Colorless green ideas sleep furiously.




said to be syntactically correct but semantically meaningless.



We can analyse this sentence as




adjective + adjective + noun + verb + adverb




and yes, is syntacticaly correct. But what if we syntactically analyse it as




adjective + adjective-for-chromatic-things + abstract-noun + passive-verb-for-concrete-things + active-adverb




or something along those lines. We could divide the set of parts of speech into more specific ones, so that the sentence is syntactically only if it is semantically meaningful.



Is there a strict difference between the two? What could be the flaw in this example?










share|improve this question







New contributor



Ian Fieldhouse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





























    2

















    On many places I may read that syntax is about structure, and semantics is about meaning, and this makes sense. But, lets think of the canonical example




    Colorless green ideas sleep furiously.




    said to be syntactically correct but semantically meaningless.



    We can analyse this sentence as




    adjective + adjective + noun + verb + adverb




    and yes, is syntacticaly correct. But what if we syntactically analyse it as




    adjective + adjective-for-chromatic-things + abstract-noun + passive-verb-for-concrete-things + active-adverb




    or something along those lines. We could divide the set of parts of speech into more specific ones, so that the sentence is syntactically only if it is semantically meaningful.



    Is there a strict difference between the two? What could be the flaw in this example?










    share|improve this question







    New contributor



    Ian Fieldhouse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.

























      2












      2








      2








      On many places I may read that syntax is about structure, and semantics is about meaning, and this makes sense. But, lets think of the canonical example




      Colorless green ideas sleep furiously.




      said to be syntactically correct but semantically meaningless.



      We can analyse this sentence as




      adjective + adjective + noun + verb + adverb




      and yes, is syntacticaly correct. But what if we syntactically analyse it as




      adjective + adjective-for-chromatic-things + abstract-noun + passive-verb-for-concrete-things + active-adverb




      or something along those lines. We could divide the set of parts of speech into more specific ones, so that the sentence is syntactically only if it is semantically meaningful.



      Is there a strict difference between the two? What could be the flaw in this example?










      share|improve this question







      New contributor



      Ian Fieldhouse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      On many places I may read that syntax is about structure, and semantics is about meaning, and this makes sense. But, lets think of the canonical example




      Colorless green ideas sleep furiously.




      said to be syntactically correct but semantically meaningless.



      We can analyse this sentence as




      adjective + adjective + noun + verb + adverb




      and yes, is syntacticaly correct. But what if we syntactically analyse it as




      adjective + adjective-for-chromatic-things + abstract-noun + passive-verb-for-concrete-things + active-adverb




      or something along those lines. We could divide the set of parts of speech into more specific ones, so that the sentence is syntactically only if it is semantically meaningful.



      Is there a strict difference between the two? What could be the flaw in this example?







      syntax semantics






      share|improve this question







      New contributor



      Ian Fieldhouse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.










      share|improve this question







      New contributor



      Ian Fieldhouse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.








      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question



      share|improve this question






      New contributor



      Ian Fieldhouse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.








      asked 8 hours ago









      Ian FieldhouseIan Fieldhouse

      112 bronze badges




      112 bronze badges




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      Check out our Code of Conduct.




      New contributor




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      Check out our Code of Conduct.

























          1 Answer
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          2


















          To answer the main question in the title: No, there is no strict wall between syntax and semantics. I think anyone who has worked at all in syntax will know that syntax, semantic and pragmatics are intricately linked, and you cannot study one without the rest. For example, consider the Manipuri case marker (Bhat, 2002) (this is entirely a random example that's only chosen because it's something I've been reading about and it's a clear-cut example):



          (1) ma-nǝ ǝy-bu kawwi
          he-nom me-acc kicked
          ‘He kicked me’

          (2) ma ǝybu uy
          he me-acc saw
          ‘He saw me’


          The reason we add the marker in (1) and not (2) is because (1) is about an activity and (2) is about a state. It is obvious from these and other examples that there is no strict separation between syntax and semantics.



          However, the example that you give isn't such a great example. In principle, linguists only put words into parts of speech because of morphosyntactic criteria, i.e. criteria that are realised in the form of language, not semantic criteria, criteria that a purely based on meaning. (Examples of morphosyntactic criteria would be whether a word can modify a word of another type, whether a word can be inflected in a certain way, etc.) So we would not advocate for a category 'adjective for chromatic things' in English unless there is a specific syntactic reason for it, say if English colour adjectives were the only ones that can occur postnominally (which of course isn't true). Ditto for abstract nouns, concrete things, etc. Passive is a syntactic notion and not a semantic one, so it doesn't help your case (and I'm not sure what 'active adverb' means - 'furious' doesn't seem to involve action to me, and I'm not sure how it's related to active in the sense of active vs passive either).



          Bhat, D. S. (2002). Grammatical relations: the evidence against their necessity and universality. Routledge.






          share|improve this answer























          • 1





            Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

            – jlawler
            7 hours ago











          • The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            6 hours ago











          • @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            5 hours ago













          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          2


















          To answer the main question in the title: No, there is no strict wall between syntax and semantics. I think anyone who has worked at all in syntax will know that syntax, semantic and pragmatics are intricately linked, and you cannot study one without the rest. For example, consider the Manipuri case marker (Bhat, 2002) (this is entirely a random example that's only chosen because it's something I've been reading about and it's a clear-cut example):



          (1) ma-nǝ ǝy-bu kawwi
          he-nom me-acc kicked
          ‘He kicked me’

          (2) ma ǝybu uy
          he me-acc saw
          ‘He saw me’


          The reason we add the marker in (1) and not (2) is because (1) is about an activity and (2) is about a state. It is obvious from these and other examples that there is no strict separation between syntax and semantics.



          However, the example that you give isn't such a great example. In principle, linguists only put words into parts of speech because of morphosyntactic criteria, i.e. criteria that are realised in the form of language, not semantic criteria, criteria that a purely based on meaning. (Examples of morphosyntactic criteria would be whether a word can modify a word of another type, whether a word can be inflected in a certain way, etc.) So we would not advocate for a category 'adjective for chromatic things' in English unless there is a specific syntactic reason for it, say if English colour adjectives were the only ones that can occur postnominally (which of course isn't true). Ditto for abstract nouns, concrete things, etc. Passive is a syntactic notion and not a semantic one, so it doesn't help your case (and I'm not sure what 'active adverb' means - 'furious' doesn't seem to involve action to me, and I'm not sure how it's related to active in the sense of active vs passive either).



          Bhat, D. S. (2002). Grammatical relations: the evidence against their necessity and universality. Routledge.






          share|improve this answer























          • 1





            Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

            – jlawler
            7 hours ago











          • The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            6 hours ago











          • @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            5 hours ago
















          2


















          To answer the main question in the title: No, there is no strict wall between syntax and semantics. I think anyone who has worked at all in syntax will know that syntax, semantic and pragmatics are intricately linked, and you cannot study one without the rest. For example, consider the Manipuri case marker (Bhat, 2002) (this is entirely a random example that's only chosen because it's something I've been reading about and it's a clear-cut example):



          (1) ma-nǝ ǝy-bu kawwi
          he-nom me-acc kicked
          ‘He kicked me’

          (2) ma ǝybu uy
          he me-acc saw
          ‘He saw me’


          The reason we add the marker in (1) and not (2) is because (1) is about an activity and (2) is about a state. It is obvious from these and other examples that there is no strict separation between syntax and semantics.



          However, the example that you give isn't such a great example. In principle, linguists only put words into parts of speech because of morphosyntactic criteria, i.e. criteria that are realised in the form of language, not semantic criteria, criteria that a purely based on meaning. (Examples of morphosyntactic criteria would be whether a word can modify a word of another type, whether a word can be inflected in a certain way, etc.) So we would not advocate for a category 'adjective for chromatic things' in English unless there is a specific syntactic reason for it, say if English colour adjectives were the only ones that can occur postnominally (which of course isn't true). Ditto for abstract nouns, concrete things, etc. Passive is a syntactic notion and not a semantic one, so it doesn't help your case (and I'm not sure what 'active adverb' means - 'furious' doesn't seem to involve action to me, and I'm not sure how it's related to active in the sense of active vs passive either).



          Bhat, D. S. (2002). Grammatical relations: the evidence against their necessity and universality. Routledge.






          share|improve this answer























          • 1





            Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

            – jlawler
            7 hours ago











          • The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            6 hours ago











          • @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            5 hours ago














          2














          2










          2









          To answer the main question in the title: No, there is no strict wall between syntax and semantics. I think anyone who has worked at all in syntax will know that syntax, semantic and pragmatics are intricately linked, and you cannot study one without the rest. For example, consider the Manipuri case marker (Bhat, 2002) (this is entirely a random example that's only chosen because it's something I've been reading about and it's a clear-cut example):



          (1) ma-nǝ ǝy-bu kawwi
          he-nom me-acc kicked
          ‘He kicked me’

          (2) ma ǝybu uy
          he me-acc saw
          ‘He saw me’


          The reason we add the marker in (1) and not (2) is because (1) is about an activity and (2) is about a state. It is obvious from these and other examples that there is no strict separation between syntax and semantics.



          However, the example that you give isn't such a great example. In principle, linguists only put words into parts of speech because of morphosyntactic criteria, i.e. criteria that are realised in the form of language, not semantic criteria, criteria that a purely based on meaning. (Examples of morphosyntactic criteria would be whether a word can modify a word of another type, whether a word can be inflected in a certain way, etc.) So we would not advocate for a category 'adjective for chromatic things' in English unless there is a specific syntactic reason for it, say if English colour adjectives were the only ones that can occur postnominally (which of course isn't true). Ditto for abstract nouns, concrete things, etc. Passive is a syntactic notion and not a semantic one, so it doesn't help your case (and I'm not sure what 'active adverb' means - 'furious' doesn't seem to involve action to me, and I'm not sure how it's related to active in the sense of active vs passive either).



          Bhat, D. S. (2002). Grammatical relations: the evidence against their necessity and universality. Routledge.






          share|improve this answer
















          To answer the main question in the title: No, there is no strict wall between syntax and semantics. I think anyone who has worked at all in syntax will know that syntax, semantic and pragmatics are intricately linked, and you cannot study one without the rest. For example, consider the Manipuri case marker (Bhat, 2002) (this is entirely a random example that's only chosen because it's something I've been reading about and it's a clear-cut example):



          (1) ma-nǝ ǝy-bu kawwi
          he-nom me-acc kicked
          ‘He kicked me’

          (2) ma ǝybu uy
          he me-acc saw
          ‘He saw me’


          The reason we add the marker in (1) and not (2) is because (1) is about an activity and (2) is about a state. It is obvious from these and other examples that there is no strict separation between syntax and semantics.



          However, the example that you give isn't such a great example. In principle, linguists only put words into parts of speech because of morphosyntactic criteria, i.e. criteria that are realised in the form of language, not semantic criteria, criteria that a purely based on meaning. (Examples of morphosyntactic criteria would be whether a word can modify a word of another type, whether a word can be inflected in a certain way, etc.) So we would not advocate for a category 'adjective for chromatic things' in English unless there is a specific syntactic reason for it, say if English colour adjectives were the only ones that can occur postnominally (which of course isn't true). Ditto for abstract nouns, concrete things, etc. Passive is a syntactic notion and not a semantic one, so it doesn't help your case (and I'm not sure what 'active adverb' means - 'furious' doesn't seem to involve action to me, and I'm not sure how it's related to active in the sense of active vs passive either).



          Bhat, D. S. (2002). Grammatical relations: the evidence against their necessity and universality. Routledge.







          share|improve this answer















          share|improve this answer




          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 6 hours ago

























          answered 8 hours ago









          WavesWashSandsWavesWashSands

          2,39111 silver badges29 bronze badges




          2,39111 silver badges29 bronze badges










          • 1





            Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

            – jlawler
            7 hours ago











          • The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            6 hours ago











          • @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            5 hours ago













          • 1





            Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

            – jlawler
            7 hours ago











          • The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            6 hours ago











          • @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

            – WavesWashSands
            6 hours ago











          • Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

            – Ian Fieldhouse
            5 hours ago








          1




          1





          Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

          – jlawler
          7 hours ago





          Right. After all, syntax is mindless; its purpose is to make semantics and pragmatics some room to maneuver, and it's not surprising that it seems to have adapted itself to necessities. 3-place predicates have their own syntax; or, put another way, verbs involving Dative movement resemble one another semantically. Levin's book English Verb Classes and Alternations lists the verbs that undergo many syntactic rules, and each group is semantically unified.

          – jlawler
          7 hours ago













          The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

          – Ian Fieldhouse
          6 hours ago





          The idea of active/passive wasn’t about the linguistic terms, but about how «sleeping furiously» is semantically nonsense. «to sleep» and «furiously» dont make sense together as one is a passive, calm concept, whereas the other an active, energetic concept. The other idea is interesting: to put words into morphosyntactic criteria (form, not meaning) is the closest to my problem. Seems to me that this is the arbitrary distinction between the two that linguists make. Correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems like we talk about syntactic things because we say they are syntactic.

          – Ian Fieldhouse
          6 hours ago













          @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

          – WavesWashSands
          6 hours ago





          @IanFieldhouse: About the first point: yeah, that's something I figured too, since the verb is not syntactically passive. About the second point: I don't think it's arbitrary but rather obvious. It's morphosyntactic if you can actually 'see' the properties of that category (e.g. the distinction between nouns and verbs in English is morphosyntactic because only verbs take past tense, only nouns get modified by adjectives, etc.),

          – WavesWashSands
          6 hours ago













          and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

          – WavesWashSands
          6 hours ago





          and it's purely semantic if it's about meaning rather than form (there is no difference, as far as I'm aware, in the way English colour terms behave that sets them aside from all other adjectives). This seems like a pretty motivated distinction to me.

          – WavesWashSands
          6 hours ago













          Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

          – Ian Fieldhouse
          5 hours ago






          Oh, see your point. It’s about how they make the structure in a more abstract way. The sets I created in my example would all collapse into their original ones, as they structurally behave the same. So in your example, would fall into the particles/postpositions category? At the moment it feels like sentences are synthesised following syntactical rules, and analysed following semantic reasoning. If we compose ma-nǝ ǝybu uy, it would be sound, but when we decompose its parts and look at how its pieces relate, its meaning would be corrupted. Could that be correct?

          – Ian Fieldhouse
          5 hours ago












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