Area of parallelogram = Area of square. Shear transformVisualizing the Area of a ParallelogramArea of stripe around cylinderProving the area of a square and the required axiomsarea of rotated squares on top of each otherArea of Square $neq$ the area of Rhombus created by stretched square?volume of a frustum in different wayParallelogram, Area and AnglesHow to prove area of the square and parallelogram the same?How can the area of a parallelogram be show to be equal to the determinant?Confusion on Parallelogram
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Area of parallelogram = Area of square. Shear transform
Visualizing the Area of a ParallelogramArea of stripe around cylinderProving the area of a square and the required axiomsarea of rotated squares on top of each otherArea of Square $neq$ the area of Rhombus created by stretched square?volume of a frustum in different wayParallelogram, Area and AnglesHow to prove area of the square and parallelogram the same?How can the area of a parallelogram be show to be equal to the determinant?Confusion on Parallelogram
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
$begingroup$
Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.
Since area of parallelogram is base x height
, both square and parallelogram have the same area.
This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.
In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same
.
But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?
geometry
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.
Since area of parallelogram is base x height
, both square and parallelogram have the same area.
This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.
In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same
.
But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?
geometry
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.
Since area of parallelogram is base x height
, both square and parallelogram have the same area.
This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.
In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same
.
But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?
geometry
$endgroup$
Below the parallelogram is obtained from square by stretching the top side while fixing the bottom.
Since area of parallelogram is base x height
, both square and parallelogram have the same area.
This is true no matter how far I stretch the top side.
In below figure it is easy to see why both areas are same
.
But it's not that obvious in first two figures. Any help seeing why the area doesn't change in first figure?
geometry
geometry
asked 10 hours ago
rsadhvikarsadhvika
1,79912 silver badges29 bronze badges
1,79912 silver badges29 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Behold, $phantomproof without words$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.
I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.
The general form of such a transformation is
$beginbmatrix1&a\0&1endbmatrix$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)
Then you always have
$$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
$$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
$$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
$$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$
From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your first two figures, note that
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EBCH)+textarea(HCG)$$
and
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EFGH)+textarea(BEF).$$
But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
Subtracting that gives
$$textarea(EBCH)=textarea(EFGH).$$
Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
add a comment |
Your Answer
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Behold, $phantomproof without words$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Behold, $phantomproof without words$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Behold, $phantomproof without words$
$endgroup$
Behold, $phantomproof without words$
answered 5 hours ago
runway44runway44
6976 bronze badges
6976 bronze badges
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Yeah: that picture proof is pretty robust. Has all the elements to formulate a synthetic argument too.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.
I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.
The general form of such a transformation is
$beginbmatrix1&a\0&1endbmatrix$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)
Then you always have
$$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
$$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
$$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
$$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$
From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.
I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.
The general form of such a transformation is
$beginbmatrix1&a\0&1endbmatrix$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)
Then you always have
$$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
$$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
$$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
$$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$
From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.
I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.
The general form of such a transformation is
$beginbmatrix1&a\0&1endbmatrix$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)
Then you always have
$$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
$$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
$$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
$$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$
From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)
$endgroup$
It folows from Cavalieri's Principle, or else if you know that shear transforms have determinant $1$, and hence don't change area, that's another way to see it.
I don't understand why it isn't "easy to see" that all three figures have equal bases and heights... Maybe you should just take a look at computing the difference between the images of the endpoints of the top of the squares to convince yourself.
The general form of such a transformation is
$beginbmatrix1&a\0&1endbmatrix$ multiplying on the left of column vectors.)
Then you always have
$$[0,0]^Tmapsto [0,0]^T$$
$$[1,0]^Tmapsto [1,0]^T$$
$$[0,1]^Tmapsto [a,1]^T$$
$$[1,1]^Tmapsto [1+a,1]^T$$
From the first two you can see the length of the bottom horizontal line is $1$, and from the second two you can see the length of the top horizontal line is $1$. Obviously they also show the height was unchanged (since the $y$ coordinates were all preserved.)
edited 10 hours ago
answered 10 hours ago
rschwiebrschwieb
111k12 gold badges111 silver badges260 bronze badges
111k12 gold badges111 silver badges260 bronze badges
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
It's not clear to me OP doesn't see the figures have equal bases and heights. Presumably OP sees this, and understands the formula therefore dictates they have the same area, but doesn't understand why they ought to have the same area besides taking a formula for granted.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@runway44 could be: although it could have been more clearly stated that a proof independent of the formula was requested.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).
$endgroup$
Slice each figure by infinitely many infinitely thin horizontal layers. The area of each slice is the same as that of the corresponding slice in the original square: corresponding slices both have the same width and height and the ends can be neglected (in the given limit).
edited 4 hours ago
answered 10 hours ago
David G. StorkDavid G. Stork
13.6k4 gold badges19 silver badges37 bronze badges
13.6k4 gold badges19 silver badges37 bronze badges
1
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Seems circular. You would like to say exactly the same thing about the thin slices as you would for the whole, but you don't have it yet (unless you assume the conclusion.)
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Agree with @rschwieb . You may want to put something in about the thin horizontal slices being just straight up rectangles instead of sheared rectangles on top of one another, so that they could've also been gotten in the original square, and as we make them infinitely small, the "empty space" due to having to shift over the ones getting stacked on top approaches 0?
$endgroup$
– Joshua Ronis
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
Not circular at all, though I clarified the answer to include this.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
@DavidG.Stork Taken at face value it was circular... but I see now you have expanded it to a sketch of Cavalieri’s principle, yes.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
$begingroup$
An alternative version of this is to take the parallelogram and slice it into sufficiently many horizontal parallelogram strips so that each strip can individually be sheared into rectangles according to the OP's "easy to see why" picture. These rectangles can be slid around to form a big rectangle.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
16 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your first two figures, note that
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EBCH)+textarea(HCG)$$
and
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EFGH)+textarea(BEF).$$
But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
Subtracting that gives
$$textarea(EBCH)=textarea(EFGH).$$
Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your first two figures, note that
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EBCH)+textarea(HCG)$$
and
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EFGH)+textarea(BEF).$$
But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
Subtracting that gives
$$textarea(EBCH)=textarea(EFGH).$$
Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your first two figures, note that
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EBCH)+textarea(HCG)$$
and
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EFGH)+textarea(BEF).$$
But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
Subtracting that gives
$$textarea(EBCH)=textarea(EFGH).$$
Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.
$endgroup$
In your first two figures, note that
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EBCH)+textarea(HCG)$$
and
$$textarea(EBGH)=textarea(EFGH)+textarea(BEF).$$
But the triangles $HCG$ and $BEF$ are congruent, so have the same area.
Subtracting that gives
$$textarea(EBCH)=textarea(EFGH).$$
Come to think about it, this works just as well in the third figure.
edited 26 mins ago
answered 10 hours ago
Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown
116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges
116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
I don't understand the letters you're using. For instance, I don't see a point $P$ in the picture, and $B,C,G$ are collinear points. But a tribagle sounds quite nice. :) I suspect your proof is almost the same as mine though.
$endgroup$
– runway44
5 hours ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
$begingroup$
The term $textarea(BCG)$ looks spurious. Are you sure you don't just want to delete it? The proof would look fine without it.
$endgroup$
– David K
28 mins ago
add a comment |
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