Fundamental group of the real projective plane and its universal coverCalculating fundamental group of the Klein bottleFundamental group of the torusThe Fundamental group of Klein BottleFundamental group of projective plane with handlesFundamental group of the Klein bottleIs the Fundamental Group of space with contractible universal cover torsion free?Real singular (co)homology of projective plane/Klein bottle without Mayer-Vietoris/Van-KampenComputing the fundamental groupFundamental Group of Surface Formed by Gluing Three Mobius Strips along their BoundariesFundamental group of projective plane with g handles by van Kampen

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Fundamental group of the real projective plane and its universal cover


Calculating fundamental group of the Klein bottleFundamental group of the torusThe Fundamental group of Klein BottleFundamental group of projective plane with handlesFundamental group of the Klein bottleIs the Fundamental Group of space with contractible universal cover torsion free?Real singular (co)homology of projective plane/Klein bottle without Mayer-Vietoris/Van-KampenComputing the fundamental groupFundamental Group of Surface Formed by Gluing Three Mobius Strips along their BoundariesFundamental group of projective plane with g handles by van Kampen













2












$begingroup$


I have some questions regarding the real projective plane $mathbbRmathbbP^2$.



If we choose to represent it using the following identification on the square $[0, 1]^2$ :



enter image description here



how can we see that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ?



I tried using Seifert-van Kampen theorem but I have a problem. I chose $U_1$ as the whole square (above) minus the central point and $U_2$ as a disk included in the square.



First, $pi_1(U_2)$ is trivial (as $U_2$ is contractible).



Second, the boundary of the square is a deformation retract of $U_1$ and here is my first question. If we do the same exercise with the Klein bottle or the torus, we know that the boundary is (is homeomorphic ?) a bouquet of two circles. With the identification which is made here, do we have also the same fact ?



I'm assuming that the answer to my preceding question is "yes", in that case, $pi_1(U_1)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | emptyset rangle$



Finally, using S-vK theorem, we obtain that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | (AB)^2 = 1 rangle$ and here is my second question. Is this group isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ? It looks like, but I have the feeling that it is not the case.



Also, my last question, we know that the universal cover of $mathbbRmathbbP^2$ is the sphere $S^2$. In that case, the group of deck transformations is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$. Could you give me explicitely the two elements of this group ?



Thank your for your help !










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    I have some questions regarding the real projective plane $mathbbRmathbbP^2$.



    If we choose to represent it using the following identification on the square $[0, 1]^2$ :



    enter image description here



    how can we see that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ?



    I tried using Seifert-van Kampen theorem but I have a problem. I chose $U_1$ as the whole square (above) minus the central point and $U_2$ as a disk included in the square.



    First, $pi_1(U_2)$ is trivial (as $U_2$ is contractible).



    Second, the boundary of the square is a deformation retract of $U_1$ and here is my first question. If we do the same exercise with the Klein bottle or the torus, we know that the boundary is (is homeomorphic ?) a bouquet of two circles. With the identification which is made here, do we have also the same fact ?



    I'm assuming that the answer to my preceding question is "yes", in that case, $pi_1(U_1)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | emptyset rangle$



    Finally, using S-vK theorem, we obtain that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | (AB)^2 = 1 rangle$ and here is my second question. Is this group isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ? It looks like, but I have the feeling that it is not the case.



    Also, my last question, we know that the universal cover of $mathbbRmathbbP^2$ is the sphere $S^2$. In that case, the group of deck transformations is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$. Could you give me explicitely the two elements of this group ?



    Thank your for your help !










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I have some questions regarding the real projective plane $mathbbRmathbbP^2$.



      If we choose to represent it using the following identification on the square $[0, 1]^2$ :



      enter image description here



      how can we see that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ?



      I tried using Seifert-van Kampen theorem but I have a problem. I chose $U_1$ as the whole square (above) minus the central point and $U_2$ as a disk included in the square.



      First, $pi_1(U_2)$ is trivial (as $U_2$ is contractible).



      Second, the boundary of the square is a deformation retract of $U_1$ and here is my first question. If we do the same exercise with the Klein bottle or the torus, we know that the boundary is (is homeomorphic ?) a bouquet of two circles. With the identification which is made here, do we have also the same fact ?



      I'm assuming that the answer to my preceding question is "yes", in that case, $pi_1(U_1)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | emptyset rangle$



      Finally, using S-vK theorem, we obtain that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | (AB)^2 = 1 rangle$ and here is my second question. Is this group isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ? It looks like, but I have the feeling that it is not the case.



      Also, my last question, we know that the universal cover of $mathbbRmathbbP^2$ is the sphere $S^2$. In that case, the group of deck transformations is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$. Could you give me explicitely the two elements of this group ?



      Thank your for your help !










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have some questions regarding the real projective plane $mathbbRmathbbP^2$.



      If we choose to represent it using the following identification on the square $[0, 1]^2$ :



      enter image description here



      how can we see that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ?



      I tried using Seifert-van Kampen theorem but I have a problem. I chose $U_1$ as the whole square (above) minus the central point and $U_2$ as a disk included in the square.



      First, $pi_1(U_2)$ is trivial (as $U_2$ is contractible).



      Second, the boundary of the square is a deformation retract of $U_1$ and here is my first question. If we do the same exercise with the Klein bottle or the torus, we know that the boundary is (is homeomorphic ?) a bouquet of two circles. With the identification which is made here, do we have also the same fact ?



      I'm assuming that the answer to my preceding question is "yes", in that case, $pi_1(U_1)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | emptyset rangle$



      Finally, using S-vK theorem, we obtain that $pi_1(mathbbRmathbbP^2)$ is isomorphic to $langle A, B | (AB)^2 = 1 rangle$ and here is my second question. Is this group isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$ ? It looks like, but I have the feeling that it is not the case.



      Also, my last question, we know that the universal cover of $mathbbRmathbbP^2$ is the sphere $S^2$. In that case, the group of deck transformations is isomorphic to $mathbbZ backslash 2mathbbZ$. Could you give me explicitely the two elements of this group ?



      Thank your for your help !







      algebraic-topology fundamental-groups






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 8 hours ago









      deeppinkwaterdeeppinkwater

      1148




      1148




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          No! Your $A,B$ are not loops (there are no arrows that allow you to identify the head and tail of $A$), so they are not generators. The only loop is $AB$ (or $BA$ if you choose a different basepoint), so your $pi_1$ is generated by $AB$, and its square $(AB)^2$ in $mathbbRP^2$ is killed by your square (sorry, bad pun).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
            $endgroup$
            – cmk
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
            $endgroup$
            – deeppinkwater
            7 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
            $endgroup$
            – user10354138
            7 hours ago


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Here's one proof using the lifting correspondence. Let $p:S^2rightarrow RP^2$ be the antipodal identification map. This is a covering map, with $S^2$ the universal cover. Let $phi:pi_1 (RP^2,b)rightarrow p^-1(b)$ be the lifting corresondence. This is bijective because $S^2$ is simply connected, and hence $pi_1(RP^2,b)$ only has two elements. Note that this generalizes to $RP^n$ for all $ngeq 2$.



          Another way of using SVK is to remember that $RP^2$ can be obtained by gluing a disk the boundary of the Mobius strip. Take $U$ to be a neighborhood of the strip and $V$ to be a disk. Then, $Ucap V$ is an annulus, which has fundamental group $mathbbZ$. Since $U$ deformation retracts to $S^1$, it has fundamental group $mathbbZ=langle arangle$, and the fundamental group of $V$ is clearly trivial. By SVK, $f:mathbbZrightarrowpi_1(RP^2)$ is surjective. We must find the kernel. Let $k$ be the inclusion from $Ucap V$ into $U,$ and $ell$ the inclusion into $V$. We only need to consider $k$, since the fundamental group of $V$ is trivial. If we take the generator $g$ for $Ucap V$ and send it to the fundamental polygon of the Mobius strip, its image circles twice, meaning that it is homotopic to $a^2$. Since the kernel is the smallest normal subgroup containing $k_*(g)^-1ell_*(g)=(a^2)^-1,$ we can conclude that the kernel is the normal subgroup generated by $langle a^2rangle,$ and so $pi_1(RP^2)=langle arangle/langle a^2rangle=mathbbZ_2.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            Making the identifications on just the boundary $partial U_1$ alone does not yield a bouquet of two circles. Also, the four corners of the square are not all identified to each other: the upper-left and lower-right corners are identified to one point, and the upper-right and lower-left corners are identified to another point. Note in particular: neither $A$ nor $B$ maps to a closed path in the quotient circle, so you may not use either of them as a generator



            Instead, the identifications, on $partial U_1$ yield just a single circle which is decomposed into a concatenation of two half-circles $C=BA$. We can take $C$ as a generator for $pi_1$ of the quotient circle.



            Furthermore, the quotient map $q : partial U_1 to S^1$ is a 2-1 covering map: you can see this by reading the letters in order going clockwise around $partial Y_1$, and you get $BABA = (BA)^2 = C^2$.



            So now you have enough information to use the same procedure as for the torus and Klein bottle (based on the Seifert-Van Kampen theorem) to obtain the presentation
            $$langle Cmid C^2 = 1 rangle
            $$

            which presents the cyclic group of order $2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              4












              $begingroup$

              No! Your $A,B$ are not loops (there are no arrows that allow you to identify the head and tail of $A$), so they are not generators. The only loop is $AB$ (or $BA$ if you choose a different basepoint), so your $pi_1$ is generated by $AB$, and its square $(AB)^2$ in $mathbbRP^2$ is killed by your square (sorry, bad pun).






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
                $endgroup$
                – cmk
                8 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
                $endgroup$
                – deeppinkwater
                7 hours ago






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
                $endgroup$
                – user10354138
                7 hours ago















              4












              $begingroup$

              No! Your $A,B$ are not loops (there are no arrows that allow you to identify the head and tail of $A$), so they are not generators. The only loop is $AB$ (or $BA$ if you choose a different basepoint), so your $pi_1$ is generated by $AB$, and its square $(AB)^2$ in $mathbbRP^2$ is killed by your square (sorry, bad pun).






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
                $endgroup$
                – cmk
                8 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
                $endgroup$
                – deeppinkwater
                7 hours ago






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
                $endgroup$
                – user10354138
                7 hours ago













              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              No! Your $A,B$ are not loops (there are no arrows that allow you to identify the head and tail of $A$), so they are not generators. The only loop is $AB$ (or $BA$ if you choose a different basepoint), so your $pi_1$ is generated by $AB$, and its square $(AB)^2$ in $mathbbRP^2$ is killed by your square (sorry, bad pun).






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              No! Your $A,B$ are not loops (there are no arrows that allow you to identify the head and tail of $A$), so they are not generators. The only loop is $AB$ (or $BA$ if you choose a different basepoint), so your $pi_1$ is generated by $AB$, and its square $(AB)^2$ in $mathbbRP^2$ is killed by your square (sorry, bad pun).







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered 8 hours ago









              user10354138user10354138

              13.5k21125




              13.5k21125











              • $begingroup$
                (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
                $endgroup$
                – cmk
                8 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
                $endgroup$
                – deeppinkwater
                7 hours ago






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
                $endgroup$
                – user10354138
                7 hours ago
















              • $begingroup$
                (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
                $endgroup$
                – cmk
                8 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
                $endgroup$
                – deeppinkwater
                7 hours ago






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
                $endgroup$
                – user10354138
                7 hours ago















              $begingroup$
              (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
              $endgroup$
              – cmk
              8 hours ago




              $begingroup$
              (+1) I forgot to discuss the issue with their proof, and I think this lays it out perfectly.
              $endgroup$
              – cmk
              8 hours ago












              $begingroup$
              Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
              $endgroup$
              – deeppinkwater
              7 hours ago




              $begingroup$
              Ah ! Yes, I see now... So, if we have only one generator, does it mean that the boundary of the square (with this identification) is homeomorphic to $langle a | emptyset rangle$ ?
              $endgroup$
              – deeppinkwater
              7 hours ago




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
              $endgroup$
              – user10354138
              7 hours ago




              $begingroup$
              The boundary of the square, $ABAB$ if you read it clockwise starting top-left, is going around the a circle (the $mathbbRP^1$ at infinity) twice.
              $endgroup$
              – user10354138
              7 hours ago











              2












              $begingroup$

              Here's one proof using the lifting correspondence. Let $p:S^2rightarrow RP^2$ be the antipodal identification map. This is a covering map, with $S^2$ the universal cover. Let $phi:pi_1 (RP^2,b)rightarrow p^-1(b)$ be the lifting corresondence. This is bijective because $S^2$ is simply connected, and hence $pi_1(RP^2,b)$ only has two elements. Note that this generalizes to $RP^n$ for all $ngeq 2$.



              Another way of using SVK is to remember that $RP^2$ can be obtained by gluing a disk the boundary of the Mobius strip. Take $U$ to be a neighborhood of the strip and $V$ to be a disk. Then, $Ucap V$ is an annulus, which has fundamental group $mathbbZ$. Since $U$ deformation retracts to $S^1$, it has fundamental group $mathbbZ=langle arangle$, and the fundamental group of $V$ is clearly trivial. By SVK, $f:mathbbZrightarrowpi_1(RP^2)$ is surjective. We must find the kernel. Let $k$ be the inclusion from $Ucap V$ into $U,$ and $ell$ the inclusion into $V$. We only need to consider $k$, since the fundamental group of $V$ is trivial. If we take the generator $g$ for $Ucap V$ and send it to the fundamental polygon of the Mobius strip, its image circles twice, meaning that it is homotopic to $a^2$. Since the kernel is the smallest normal subgroup containing $k_*(g)^-1ell_*(g)=(a^2)^-1,$ we can conclude that the kernel is the normal subgroup generated by $langle a^2rangle,$ and so $pi_1(RP^2)=langle arangle/langle a^2rangle=mathbbZ_2.$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                2












                $begingroup$

                Here's one proof using the lifting correspondence. Let $p:S^2rightarrow RP^2$ be the antipodal identification map. This is a covering map, with $S^2$ the universal cover. Let $phi:pi_1 (RP^2,b)rightarrow p^-1(b)$ be the lifting corresondence. This is bijective because $S^2$ is simply connected, and hence $pi_1(RP^2,b)$ only has two elements. Note that this generalizes to $RP^n$ for all $ngeq 2$.



                Another way of using SVK is to remember that $RP^2$ can be obtained by gluing a disk the boundary of the Mobius strip. Take $U$ to be a neighborhood of the strip and $V$ to be a disk. Then, $Ucap V$ is an annulus, which has fundamental group $mathbbZ$. Since $U$ deformation retracts to $S^1$, it has fundamental group $mathbbZ=langle arangle$, and the fundamental group of $V$ is clearly trivial. By SVK, $f:mathbbZrightarrowpi_1(RP^2)$ is surjective. We must find the kernel. Let $k$ be the inclusion from $Ucap V$ into $U,$ and $ell$ the inclusion into $V$. We only need to consider $k$, since the fundamental group of $V$ is trivial. If we take the generator $g$ for $Ucap V$ and send it to the fundamental polygon of the Mobius strip, its image circles twice, meaning that it is homotopic to $a^2$. Since the kernel is the smallest normal subgroup containing $k_*(g)^-1ell_*(g)=(a^2)^-1,$ we can conclude that the kernel is the normal subgroup generated by $langle a^2rangle,$ and so $pi_1(RP^2)=langle arangle/langle a^2rangle=mathbbZ_2.$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Here's one proof using the lifting correspondence. Let $p:S^2rightarrow RP^2$ be the antipodal identification map. This is a covering map, with $S^2$ the universal cover. Let $phi:pi_1 (RP^2,b)rightarrow p^-1(b)$ be the lifting corresondence. This is bijective because $S^2$ is simply connected, and hence $pi_1(RP^2,b)$ only has two elements. Note that this generalizes to $RP^n$ for all $ngeq 2$.



                  Another way of using SVK is to remember that $RP^2$ can be obtained by gluing a disk the boundary of the Mobius strip. Take $U$ to be a neighborhood of the strip and $V$ to be a disk. Then, $Ucap V$ is an annulus, which has fundamental group $mathbbZ$. Since $U$ deformation retracts to $S^1$, it has fundamental group $mathbbZ=langle arangle$, and the fundamental group of $V$ is clearly trivial. By SVK, $f:mathbbZrightarrowpi_1(RP^2)$ is surjective. We must find the kernel. Let $k$ be the inclusion from $Ucap V$ into $U,$ and $ell$ the inclusion into $V$. We only need to consider $k$, since the fundamental group of $V$ is trivial. If we take the generator $g$ for $Ucap V$ and send it to the fundamental polygon of the Mobius strip, its image circles twice, meaning that it is homotopic to $a^2$. Since the kernel is the smallest normal subgroup containing $k_*(g)^-1ell_*(g)=(a^2)^-1,$ we can conclude that the kernel is the normal subgroup generated by $langle a^2rangle,$ and so $pi_1(RP^2)=langle arangle/langle a^2rangle=mathbbZ_2.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Here's one proof using the lifting correspondence. Let $p:S^2rightarrow RP^2$ be the antipodal identification map. This is a covering map, with $S^2$ the universal cover. Let $phi:pi_1 (RP^2,b)rightarrow p^-1(b)$ be the lifting corresondence. This is bijective because $S^2$ is simply connected, and hence $pi_1(RP^2,b)$ only has two elements. Note that this generalizes to $RP^n$ for all $ngeq 2$.



                  Another way of using SVK is to remember that $RP^2$ can be obtained by gluing a disk the boundary of the Mobius strip. Take $U$ to be a neighborhood of the strip and $V$ to be a disk. Then, $Ucap V$ is an annulus, which has fundamental group $mathbbZ$. Since $U$ deformation retracts to $S^1$, it has fundamental group $mathbbZ=langle arangle$, and the fundamental group of $V$ is clearly trivial. By SVK, $f:mathbbZrightarrowpi_1(RP^2)$ is surjective. We must find the kernel. Let $k$ be the inclusion from $Ucap V$ into $U,$ and $ell$ the inclusion into $V$. We only need to consider $k$, since the fundamental group of $V$ is trivial. If we take the generator $g$ for $Ucap V$ and send it to the fundamental polygon of the Mobius strip, its image circles twice, meaning that it is homotopic to $a^2$. Since the kernel is the smallest normal subgroup containing $k_*(g)^-1ell_*(g)=(a^2)^-1,$ we can conclude that the kernel is the normal subgroup generated by $langle a^2rangle,$ and so $pi_1(RP^2)=langle arangle/langle a^2rangle=mathbbZ_2.$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited 8 hours ago

























                  answered 8 hours ago









                  cmkcmk

                  2,087219




                  2,087219





















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Making the identifications on just the boundary $partial U_1$ alone does not yield a bouquet of two circles. Also, the four corners of the square are not all identified to each other: the upper-left and lower-right corners are identified to one point, and the upper-right and lower-left corners are identified to another point. Note in particular: neither $A$ nor $B$ maps to a closed path in the quotient circle, so you may not use either of them as a generator



                      Instead, the identifications, on $partial U_1$ yield just a single circle which is decomposed into a concatenation of two half-circles $C=BA$. We can take $C$ as a generator for $pi_1$ of the quotient circle.



                      Furthermore, the quotient map $q : partial U_1 to S^1$ is a 2-1 covering map: you can see this by reading the letters in order going clockwise around $partial Y_1$, and you get $BABA = (BA)^2 = C^2$.



                      So now you have enough information to use the same procedure as for the torus and Klein bottle (based on the Seifert-Van Kampen theorem) to obtain the presentation
                      $$langle Cmid C^2 = 1 rangle
                      $$

                      which presents the cyclic group of order $2$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Making the identifications on just the boundary $partial U_1$ alone does not yield a bouquet of two circles. Also, the four corners of the square are not all identified to each other: the upper-left and lower-right corners are identified to one point, and the upper-right and lower-left corners are identified to another point. Note in particular: neither $A$ nor $B$ maps to a closed path in the quotient circle, so you may not use either of them as a generator



                        Instead, the identifications, on $partial U_1$ yield just a single circle which is decomposed into a concatenation of two half-circles $C=BA$. We can take $C$ as a generator for $pi_1$ of the quotient circle.



                        Furthermore, the quotient map $q : partial U_1 to S^1$ is a 2-1 covering map: you can see this by reading the letters in order going clockwise around $partial Y_1$, and you get $BABA = (BA)^2 = C^2$.



                        So now you have enough information to use the same procedure as for the torus and Klein bottle (based on the Seifert-Van Kampen theorem) to obtain the presentation
                        $$langle Cmid C^2 = 1 rangle
                        $$

                        which presents the cyclic group of order $2$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          Making the identifications on just the boundary $partial U_1$ alone does not yield a bouquet of two circles. Also, the four corners of the square are not all identified to each other: the upper-left and lower-right corners are identified to one point, and the upper-right and lower-left corners are identified to another point. Note in particular: neither $A$ nor $B$ maps to a closed path in the quotient circle, so you may not use either of them as a generator



                          Instead, the identifications, on $partial U_1$ yield just a single circle which is decomposed into a concatenation of two half-circles $C=BA$. We can take $C$ as a generator for $pi_1$ of the quotient circle.



                          Furthermore, the quotient map $q : partial U_1 to S^1$ is a 2-1 covering map: you can see this by reading the letters in order going clockwise around $partial Y_1$, and you get $BABA = (BA)^2 = C^2$.



                          So now you have enough information to use the same procedure as for the torus and Klein bottle (based on the Seifert-Van Kampen theorem) to obtain the presentation
                          $$langle Cmid C^2 = 1 rangle
                          $$

                          which presents the cyclic group of order $2$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Making the identifications on just the boundary $partial U_1$ alone does not yield a bouquet of two circles. Also, the four corners of the square are not all identified to each other: the upper-left and lower-right corners are identified to one point, and the upper-right and lower-left corners are identified to another point. Note in particular: neither $A$ nor $B$ maps to a closed path in the quotient circle, so you may not use either of them as a generator



                          Instead, the identifications, on $partial U_1$ yield just a single circle which is decomposed into a concatenation of two half-circles $C=BA$. We can take $C$ as a generator for $pi_1$ of the quotient circle.



                          Furthermore, the quotient map $q : partial U_1 to S^1$ is a 2-1 covering map: you can see this by reading the letters in order going clockwise around $partial Y_1$, and you get $BABA = (BA)^2 = C^2$.



                          So now you have enough information to use the same procedure as for the torus and Klein bottle (based on the Seifert-Van Kampen theorem) to obtain the presentation
                          $$langle Cmid C^2 = 1 rangle
                          $$

                          which presents the cyclic group of order $2$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered 7 hours ago









                          Lee MosherLee Mosher

                          54.6k43894




                          54.6k43894



























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