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Variance and covariance inequality


Minimizing the variance of weighted sum of two random variables with respect to the weightsFinding covariance given varianceVariance and covarianceVariance, Covariance, and Correlation answer checkConditional Expectation and Variance QuestionVariance and covariance between 2 variablesHow to prove an equality envolving variance and covarianceFinding the covariance of X,Y using variance?Covariance between given iid random variable and sample averageVariance of ratio of mean value of functions of a random variable













2












$begingroup$


Given a real-valued random variable $X$, is



$$2mathbb E[X] mathrmVar(X) geq mathrmCov(X, X^2)$$



true?



Any pointers for how to tackle this problem would be immensely helpful.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    One trick is to write a little computer program to generate examples randomly, which you can use to find counterexamples. Such as $P(X=a)=p, P(X=b)=1-p$, where you use a random number generator to pick the parameters $a,b,p$ and exact formulas in terms of $a,b.p$ for the relevant moments of $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I expect that the answer will follow quickly after applying the well-known identities $textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ and $textCov(X,Y)=mathbb E[XY]-mathbb E[X]mathbb E[Y]$
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    4 hours ago















2












$begingroup$


Given a real-valued random variable $X$, is



$$2mathbb E[X] mathrmVar(X) geq mathrmCov(X, X^2)$$



true?



Any pointers for how to tackle this problem would be immensely helpful.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    One trick is to write a little computer program to generate examples randomly, which you can use to find counterexamples. Such as $P(X=a)=p, P(X=b)=1-p$, where you use a random number generator to pick the parameters $a,b,p$ and exact formulas in terms of $a,b.p$ for the relevant moments of $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I expect that the answer will follow quickly after applying the well-known identities $textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ and $textCov(X,Y)=mathbb E[XY]-mathbb E[X]mathbb E[Y]$
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    4 hours ago













2












2








2





$begingroup$


Given a real-valued random variable $X$, is



$$2mathbb E[X] mathrmVar(X) geq mathrmCov(X, X^2)$$



true?



Any pointers for how to tackle this problem would be immensely helpful.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Given a real-valued random variable $X$, is



$$2mathbb E[X] mathrmVar(X) geq mathrmCov(X, X^2)$$



true?



Any pointers for how to tackle this problem would be immensely helpful.







probability inequality variance covariance






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 5 hours ago









sk1ll3rsk1ll3r

455




455











  • $begingroup$
    One trick is to write a little computer program to generate examples randomly, which you can use to find counterexamples. Such as $P(X=a)=p, P(X=b)=1-p$, where you use a random number generator to pick the parameters $a,b,p$ and exact formulas in terms of $a,b.p$ for the relevant moments of $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I expect that the answer will follow quickly after applying the well-known identities $textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ and $textCov(X,Y)=mathbb E[XY]-mathbb E[X]mathbb E[Y]$
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    4 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    One trick is to write a little computer program to generate examples randomly, which you can use to find counterexamples. Such as $P(X=a)=p, P(X=b)=1-p$, where you use a random number generator to pick the parameters $a,b,p$ and exact formulas in terms of $a,b.p$ for the relevant moments of $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I expect that the answer will follow quickly after applying the well-known identities $textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ and $textCov(X,Y)=mathbb E[XY]-mathbb E[X]mathbb E[Y]$
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    4 hours ago















$begingroup$
One trick is to write a little computer program to generate examples randomly, which you can use to find counterexamples. Such as $P(X=a)=p, P(X=b)=1-p$, where you use a random number generator to pick the parameters $a,b,p$ and exact formulas in terms of $a,b.p$ for the relevant moments of $X$.
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
One trick is to write a little computer program to generate examples randomly, which you can use to find counterexamples. Such as $P(X=a)=p, P(X=b)=1-p$, where you use a random number generator to pick the parameters $a,b,p$ and exact formulas in terms of $a,b.p$ for the relevant moments of $X$.
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
4 hours ago












$begingroup$
I expect that the answer will follow quickly after applying the well-known identities $textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ and $textCov(X,Y)=mathbb E[XY]-mathbb E[X]mathbb E[Y]$
$endgroup$
– M. Nestor
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
I expect that the answer will follow quickly after applying the well-known identities $textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ and $textCov(X,Y)=mathbb E[XY]-mathbb E[X]mathbb E[Y]$
$endgroup$
– M. Nestor
4 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Use the variance and covariance identities
$$textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2] − mathbb E[X]^2$$
and
$$textCov(X,Y) = mathbb E[XY] − mathbb E[X] mathbb E[Y]$$



Then the given inequality is equivalent to



$$ 2 mathbb E[X] Big( mathbb E[X^2] - mathbb E[X]^2 Big)
overset?geq
mathbb E[X^3] - mathbb E[X] mathbb E[X^2] tag1$$



For a counterexample, let $X sim textExp(lambda)$ be the exponential distribution with parameter $lambda in (0, infty)$ and probability mass function



$$ f_X(x) = begincases
lambda e^-lambda x & textif x geq 0 \
0 & textif x < 0
endcases $$



Its $n$-th moment is given by $mathbb E[X^n]=fracn!lambda^n$, so the inequality $(1)$ becomes



$$2 cdot frac1lambda Big( frac2lambda^2 - frac1lambda^2 Big)
geq
frac6lambda^3 - frac1lambda cdot frac2lambda^2$$



which reduces to



$$frac2lambda^3 geq frac4lambda^3$$



This is false for all $lambda in (0, infty)$, hence we found a counterexample.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – sk1ll3r
    2 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    2 hours ago



















3












$begingroup$

Alternate approach / observation...



Assume $2 E[X] Var(X) ge Cov(X, X^2)$ for any real-valued r.v. $X.$ Then in particular it would also be true for $-X$, so that:



$$
beginalign
2E[-X] Var(-X) &ge Cov(-X, (-X)^2)\
-2E[X] Var(X) &ge -Cov(X, X^2)\
2E[X] Var(X) &le Cov(X, X^2)
endalign
$$



which, combined with the original inequality, means: $2E[X]Var(X) = Cov(X, X^2)$ for all $X$.



At this point, it would seem one should be able to find a counter-example easily, without using e.g. $Cov(X, X^2) = E[X^3] - E[X]E[X^2]$ etc, but I just couldn't think of a quick one. :(






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    Use the variance and covariance identities
    $$textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2] − mathbb E[X]^2$$
    and
    $$textCov(X,Y) = mathbb E[XY] − mathbb E[X] mathbb E[Y]$$



    Then the given inequality is equivalent to



    $$ 2 mathbb E[X] Big( mathbb E[X^2] - mathbb E[X]^2 Big)
    overset?geq
    mathbb E[X^3] - mathbb E[X] mathbb E[X^2] tag1$$



    For a counterexample, let $X sim textExp(lambda)$ be the exponential distribution with parameter $lambda in (0, infty)$ and probability mass function



    $$ f_X(x) = begincases
    lambda e^-lambda x & textif x geq 0 \
    0 & textif x < 0
    endcases $$



    Its $n$-th moment is given by $mathbb E[X^n]=fracn!lambda^n$, so the inequality $(1)$ becomes



    $$2 cdot frac1lambda Big( frac2lambda^2 - frac1lambda^2 Big)
    geq
    frac6lambda^3 - frac1lambda cdot frac2lambda^2$$



    which reduces to



    $$frac2lambda^3 geq frac4lambda^3$$



    This is false for all $lambda in (0, infty)$, hence we found a counterexample.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
      $endgroup$
      – sk1ll3r
      2 hours ago







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
      $endgroup$
      – M. Nestor
      2 hours ago
















    3












    $begingroup$

    Use the variance and covariance identities
    $$textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2] − mathbb E[X]^2$$
    and
    $$textCov(X,Y) = mathbb E[XY] − mathbb E[X] mathbb E[Y]$$



    Then the given inequality is equivalent to



    $$ 2 mathbb E[X] Big( mathbb E[X^2] - mathbb E[X]^2 Big)
    overset?geq
    mathbb E[X^3] - mathbb E[X] mathbb E[X^2] tag1$$



    For a counterexample, let $X sim textExp(lambda)$ be the exponential distribution with parameter $lambda in (0, infty)$ and probability mass function



    $$ f_X(x) = begincases
    lambda e^-lambda x & textif x geq 0 \
    0 & textif x < 0
    endcases $$



    Its $n$-th moment is given by $mathbb E[X^n]=fracn!lambda^n$, so the inequality $(1)$ becomes



    $$2 cdot frac1lambda Big( frac2lambda^2 - frac1lambda^2 Big)
    geq
    frac6lambda^3 - frac1lambda cdot frac2lambda^2$$



    which reduces to



    $$frac2lambda^3 geq frac4lambda^3$$



    This is false for all $lambda in (0, infty)$, hence we found a counterexample.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
      $endgroup$
      – sk1ll3r
      2 hours ago







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
      $endgroup$
      – M. Nestor
      2 hours ago














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    Use the variance and covariance identities
    $$textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2] − mathbb E[X]^2$$
    and
    $$textCov(X,Y) = mathbb E[XY] − mathbb E[X] mathbb E[Y]$$



    Then the given inequality is equivalent to



    $$ 2 mathbb E[X] Big( mathbb E[X^2] - mathbb E[X]^2 Big)
    overset?geq
    mathbb E[X^3] - mathbb E[X] mathbb E[X^2] tag1$$



    For a counterexample, let $X sim textExp(lambda)$ be the exponential distribution with parameter $lambda in (0, infty)$ and probability mass function



    $$ f_X(x) = begincases
    lambda e^-lambda x & textif x geq 0 \
    0 & textif x < 0
    endcases $$



    Its $n$-th moment is given by $mathbb E[X^n]=fracn!lambda^n$, so the inequality $(1)$ becomes



    $$2 cdot frac1lambda Big( frac2lambda^2 - frac1lambda^2 Big)
    geq
    frac6lambda^3 - frac1lambda cdot frac2lambda^2$$



    which reduces to



    $$frac2lambda^3 geq frac4lambda^3$$



    This is false for all $lambda in (0, infty)$, hence we found a counterexample.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Use the variance and covariance identities
    $$textVar(X)=mathbb E[X^2] − mathbb E[X]^2$$
    and
    $$textCov(X,Y) = mathbb E[XY] − mathbb E[X] mathbb E[Y]$$



    Then the given inequality is equivalent to



    $$ 2 mathbb E[X] Big( mathbb E[X^2] - mathbb E[X]^2 Big)
    overset?geq
    mathbb E[X^3] - mathbb E[X] mathbb E[X^2] tag1$$



    For a counterexample, let $X sim textExp(lambda)$ be the exponential distribution with parameter $lambda in (0, infty)$ and probability mass function



    $$ f_X(x) = begincases
    lambda e^-lambda x & textif x geq 0 \
    0 & textif x < 0
    endcases $$



    Its $n$-th moment is given by $mathbb E[X^n]=fracn!lambda^n$, so the inequality $(1)$ becomes



    $$2 cdot frac1lambda Big( frac2lambda^2 - frac1lambda^2 Big)
    geq
    frac6lambda^3 - frac1lambda cdot frac2lambda^2$$



    which reduces to



    $$frac2lambda^3 geq frac4lambda^3$$



    This is false for all $lambda in (0, infty)$, hence we found a counterexample.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 1 hour ago

























    answered 4 hours ago









    M. NestorM. Nestor

    890115




    890115











    • $begingroup$
      hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
      $endgroup$
      – sk1ll3r
      2 hours ago







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
      $endgroup$
      – M. Nestor
      2 hours ago

















    • $begingroup$
      hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
      $endgroup$
      – sk1ll3r
      2 hours ago







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
      $endgroup$
      – M. Nestor
      2 hours ago
















    $begingroup$
    hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – sk1ll3r
    2 hours ago





    $begingroup$
    hi! thanks a lot for this. do you think the inequality is false for a real-valued $X$ (as specified in the question) as well? i haven't been able to find a counter-example. for $X sim mathrmNormal(mu, sigma^2)$, both left and right hand side reduce to $2musigma^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – sk1ll3r
    2 hours ago





    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    2 hours ago





    $begingroup$
    Sorry I did not notice that detail. I edited my answer to include an example where $X$ has continuous support.
    $endgroup$
    – M. Nestor
    2 hours ago












    3












    $begingroup$

    Alternate approach / observation...



    Assume $2 E[X] Var(X) ge Cov(X, X^2)$ for any real-valued r.v. $X.$ Then in particular it would also be true for $-X$, so that:



    $$
    beginalign
    2E[-X] Var(-X) &ge Cov(-X, (-X)^2)\
    -2E[X] Var(X) &ge -Cov(X, X^2)\
    2E[X] Var(X) &le Cov(X, X^2)
    endalign
    $$



    which, combined with the original inequality, means: $2E[X]Var(X) = Cov(X, X^2)$ for all $X$.



    At this point, it would seem one should be able to find a counter-example easily, without using e.g. $Cov(X, X^2) = E[X^3] - E[X]E[X^2]$ etc, but I just couldn't think of a quick one. :(






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      3












      $begingroup$

      Alternate approach / observation...



      Assume $2 E[X] Var(X) ge Cov(X, X^2)$ for any real-valued r.v. $X.$ Then in particular it would also be true for $-X$, so that:



      $$
      beginalign
      2E[-X] Var(-X) &ge Cov(-X, (-X)^2)\
      -2E[X] Var(X) &ge -Cov(X, X^2)\
      2E[X] Var(X) &le Cov(X, X^2)
      endalign
      $$



      which, combined with the original inequality, means: $2E[X]Var(X) = Cov(X, X^2)$ for all $X$.



      At this point, it would seem one should be able to find a counter-example easily, without using e.g. $Cov(X, X^2) = E[X^3] - E[X]E[X^2]$ etc, but I just couldn't think of a quick one. :(






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        Alternate approach / observation...



        Assume $2 E[X] Var(X) ge Cov(X, X^2)$ for any real-valued r.v. $X.$ Then in particular it would also be true for $-X$, so that:



        $$
        beginalign
        2E[-X] Var(-X) &ge Cov(-X, (-X)^2)\
        -2E[X] Var(X) &ge -Cov(X, X^2)\
        2E[X] Var(X) &le Cov(X, X^2)
        endalign
        $$



        which, combined with the original inequality, means: $2E[X]Var(X) = Cov(X, X^2)$ for all $X$.



        At this point, it would seem one should be able to find a counter-example easily, without using e.g. $Cov(X, X^2) = E[X^3] - E[X]E[X^2]$ etc, but I just couldn't think of a quick one. :(






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Alternate approach / observation...



        Assume $2 E[X] Var(X) ge Cov(X, X^2)$ for any real-valued r.v. $X.$ Then in particular it would also be true for $-X$, so that:



        $$
        beginalign
        2E[-X] Var(-X) &ge Cov(-X, (-X)^2)\
        -2E[X] Var(X) &ge -Cov(X, X^2)\
        2E[X] Var(X) &le Cov(X, X^2)
        endalign
        $$



        which, combined with the original inequality, means: $2E[X]Var(X) = Cov(X, X^2)$ for all $X$.



        At this point, it would seem one should be able to find a counter-example easily, without using e.g. $Cov(X, X^2) = E[X^3] - E[X]E[X^2]$ etc, but I just couldn't think of a quick one. :(







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 1 hour ago









        antkamantkam

        4,489415




        4,489415



























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