Why is the forgetful functor representable?Why is the underlying homomorphism function a “forgetful functor”?Is the forgetful functor from groups to monoids right adjoint?Proving that the forgetful functor $U:mathbfRingtomathbfSet$ is representable.When is a monoid contained in a group?The right adjoint of forgetful functorProof that the free and forgetful functor (Set to Monoid) are adjointProve forgetful functor U: Monoid -> Set has a left adjoint.Why the forgetful functor from $mathbfAb$ to $mathbfGrp$ does not admit a right adjoint?The $2$-category of monoidsWhy does $mathbbZ$ represent the forgetful functor $U:mathbfGrptomathbfSet$

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Why is the forgetful functor representable?


Why is the underlying homomorphism function a “forgetful functor”?Is the forgetful functor from groups to monoids right adjoint?Proving that the forgetful functor $U:mathbfRingtomathbfSet$ is representable.When is a monoid contained in a group?The right adjoint of forgetful functorProof that the free and forgetful functor (Set to Monoid) are adjointProve forgetful functor U: Monoid -> Set has a left adjoint.Why the forgetful functor from $mathbfAb$ to $mathbfGrp$ does not admit a right adjoint?The $2$-category of monoidsWhy does $mathbbZ$ represent the forgetful functor $U:mathbfGrptomathbfSet$






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








3












$begingroup$


I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.



Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:



Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.



This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.



Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ruben
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
    $endgroup$
    – Robly18
    9 hours ago

















3












$begingroup$


I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.



Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:



Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.



This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.



Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ruben
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
    $endgroup$
    – Robly18
    9 hours ago













3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.



Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:



Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.



This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.



Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.



Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:



Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.



This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.



Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?







category-theory representable-functor forgetful-functors






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 9 hours ago









Robly18Robly18

1057 bronze badges




1057 bronze badges











  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ruben
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
    $endgroup$
    – Robly18
    9 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ruben
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
    $endgroup$
    – Robly18
    9 hours ago















$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago












$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.



Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
    $endgroup$
    – user54748
    8 hours ago


















2












$begingroup$

When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.



Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
    with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
    to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
    from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.



    In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
      $endgroup$
      – Robly18
      9 hours ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
      $endgroup$
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      9 hours ago













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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.



    Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
      $endgroup$
      – Max
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
      $endgroup$
      – user54748
      8 hours ago















    5












    $begingroup$

    If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.



    Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
      $endgroup$
      – Max
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
      $endgroup$
      – user54748
      8 hours ago













    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.



    Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.



    Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 9 hours ago









    user54748user54748

    3,1041 gold badge8 silver badges15 bronze badges




    3,1041 gold badge8 silver badges15 bronze badges











    • $begingroup$
      As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
      $endgroup$
      – Max
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
      $endgroup$
      – user54748
      8 hours ago
















    • $begingroup$
      As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
      $endgroup$
      – Max
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
      $endgroup$
      – user54748
      8 hours ago















    $begingroup$
    As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    9 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    9 hours ago












    $begingroup$
    Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
    $endgroup$
    – user54748
    8 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
    $endgroup$
    – user54748
    8 hours ago













    2












    $begingroup$

    When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.



    Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$

      When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.



      Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.



        Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.



        Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited 9 hours ago

























        answered 9 hours ago









        Ivan Di LibertiIvan Di Liberti

        2,7071 gold badge12 silver badges23 bronze badges




        2,7071 gold badge12 silver badges23 bronze badges





















            0












            $begingroup$

            The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
            with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
            to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
            from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.



            In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robly18
              9 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
              $endgroup$
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              9 hours ago















            0












            $begingroup$

            The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
            with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
            to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
            from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.



            In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robly18
              9 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
              $endgroup$
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              9 hours ago













            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
            with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
            to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
            from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.



            In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
            with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
            to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
            from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.



            In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 9 hours ago









            Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

            116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges




            116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robly18
              9 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
              $endgroup$
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              9 hours ago












            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robly18
              9 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
              $endgroup$
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              9 hours ago







            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robly18
            9 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robly18
            9 hours ago




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            9 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            9 hours ago

















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