Why is the forgetful functor representable?Why is the underlying homomorphism function a “forgetful functor”?Is the forgetful functor from groups to monoids right adjoint?Proving that the forgetful functor $U:mathbfRingtomathbfSet$ is representable.When is a monoid contained in a group?The right adjoint of forgetful functorProof that the free and forgetful functor (Set to Monoid) are adjointProve forgetful functor U: Monoid -> Set has a left adjoint.Why the forgetful functor from $mathbfAb$ to $mathbfGrp$ does not admit a right adjoint?The $2$-category of monoidsWhy does $mathbbZ$ represent the forgetful functor $U:mathbfGrptomathbfSet$
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Why is the forgetful functor representable?
Why is the underlying homomorphism function a “forgetful functor”?Is the forgetful functor from groups to monoids right adjoint?Proving that the forgetful functor $U:mathbfRingtomathbfSet$ is representable.When is a monoid contained in a group?The right adjoint of forgetful functorProof that the free and forgetful functor (Set to Monoid) are adjointProve forgetful functor U: Monoid -> Set has a left adjoint.Why the forgetful functor from $mathbfAb$ to $mathbfGrp$ does not admit a right adjoint?The $2$-category of monoidsWhy does $mathbbZ$ represent the forgetful functor $U:mathbfGrptomathbfSet$
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
$begingroup$
I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.
Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:
Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.
This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.
Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?
category-theory representable-functor forgetful-functors
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.
Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:
Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.
This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.
Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?
category-theory representable-functor forgetful-functors
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.
Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:
Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.
This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.
Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?
category-theory representable-functor forgetful-functors
$endgroup$
I'm reading Adowey's Category Theory, and I'm struggling with the last exercise of the second chapter, which is to show that the forgetful functor for monoids, $U : mathbfMon to mathbfSets$, is representable.
Well. My first reaction upon looking at the question was thinking it was wrong, because a representable functor takes objects to sets of functions, while the underlying set of a monoid has no obligation to be of that sort. I then came to the conclusion that what was actually necessary was to show that the forgetful functor was, in some way, isomorphic to a functor of the sort $mathrmHom(A_0, -)$ for some monoid $A_0$, and some googling led me to believe it would be a good idea to set $A_0 = mathbbN$, but this doesn't seem to work for the following reason:
Fix the monoid $A = (mathbbZ_2, +)$, and the monoid $B$ which is exactly the same but the $0$ and $1$ are swapped. These two monoids have the same underlying set, that is, it should definitely be true that $U(A) = U(B)$. However, notice that $mathrmHom(A_0, A)$ is not equal to $mathrmHom(A_0, B)$, for any monoid $A_0$ in fact: simply consider that the function constant equal to $0$ is an element of the former but not the latter.
This leads me to believe that there is no way that the forgetful functor can be thought of as a representable functor, because, in some sense, homomorphisms from a monoid $A_0$ to $A$ "care" about which element of $A$ is the unit, while the underlying set of $A$ does not.
Where is the error in my thinking, and how should I interpret the statement "The forgetful functor is representable"?
category-theory representable-functor forgetful-functors
category-theory representable-functor forgetful-functors
asked 9 hours ago
Robly18Robly18
1057 bronze badges
1057 bronze badges
$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
$endgroup$
– Ruben
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.
Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.
Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.
In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.
Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.
Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.
Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.
$endgroup$
If representable meant $F$ is equal to $mathrmHom(R, -)$, then, as you can see from your (correct) observations, the notion would be of practically no use. Representability means instead that the functor is naturally isomorphic to $mathrmHom(R, -)$ for some $R$.
Loosely speaking, it is a general principle of Category theory that you shouldn't ask whether two things are equal, but only whether they're isomorphic instead. In particular your monoids $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic, which means that the sets $mathrmHom(ℕ, A)$ and $mathrmHom(ℕ, B)$ are isomorphic as well, so there's no contradiction with representability of $U$.
answered 9 hours ago
user54748user54748
3,1041 gold badge8 silver badges15 bronze badges
3,1041 gold badge8 silver badges15 bronze badges
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
As of now this is the only answer that actually adresses the question (and gives the correct answer !), +1
$endgroup$
– Max
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, while this addresses the immediate confusion, the other explain why $ℕ$ is supposed to be the representing object.
$endgroup$
– user54748
8 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.
Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.
Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.
Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!
$endgroup$
When you have an adjunction $mathsfF dashv mathsfU$ $$mathsfF: mathsfSet leftrightarrows mathsfK: mathsfU,$$ where $mathsfU$ is a forgetful like functor, $mathsfU$ is always representable. This is due to a very specific entanglement that is characteristic of the category of sets (and in general will kinda apply for $mathcalV$ in $mathcalV$-$mathsfCat$ when $mathcalV$ is monoidal closed). In fact $$mathsfU(_) cong mathsfSet(1, mathsfU(_)) cong mathsfK(mathsfF1, (_)),$$ and thus the forgetful functor is representable and is represented by the free algebra over the one element set. This is evident when $mathsfK$ is $mathsfR$-$mathsfMod$, groups, monoids and algebraic structures in general.
Notice that in the proof I used isomorphic (!!!) functors!
edited 9 hours ago
answered 9 hours ago
Ivan Di LibertiIvan Di Liberti
2,7071 gold badge12 silver badges23 bronze badges
2,7071 gold badge12 silver badges23 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.
In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.
In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.
In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.
$endgroup$
The "free" monoid on one element is $Bbb N_0=0,1,2,,ldots$
with addition as operation. Each monoid morphism from $Bbb N_0$
to a monoid $M$ is $nmapsto a^n$ for some $ain M$, so the monoid maps
from $Bbb N_0$ to $M$ correspond to the elements of $M$.
In short, $Bbb N_0$ represents the forgetful functor.
answered 9 hours ago
Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown
116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges
116k11 gold badges67 silver badges148 bronze badges
1
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
– Robly18
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
That does not address my question. Consider the monoids $A$ and $B$ I describe in my post. We have $U(A) = U(B)$, yet the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $A$ is not the same as the set of morphisms from $mathbbN$ to $B$.
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– Robly18
9 hours ago
1
1
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$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
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– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
$A$ and $B$ are isomorphic monoids, and $U(A)$ are $U(B)$ are "isomorphic" sets (isomorphism in the category of sets means equal cardinality). @Robly18
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– Lord Shark the Unknown
9 hours ago
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$begingroup$
Could you explain in more detail what you mean by "the $0$ and $1$ are swapped"?
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– Ruben
9 hours ago
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@Ruben $B$ is the monoid with set $0, 1$, with the table: $1 + x = x + 1 = x$, $0 + 0 = 1$
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– Robly18
9 hours ago