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Basis and cardinality


Uncountable basis and separabilityWhat is the difference between a Hamel basis and a Schauder basis?little question; nonseperable Hilbert spaces: what kind of basis…?Why isn't every Hamel basis a Schauder basis?Confusion about the Hamel BasisDoes every (non-separable) Hilbert space have the approximation property?An orthogonal basis of a Hilbert space is Schauder?Schauder basis that is not Hilbert basis“Basis” of non-separable Hilbert spaceUncountable basis in Hilbert space vs orthonormal basis













2












$begingroup$


Suppose that $B$ is a separable Hilbert space and $b_i_i in mathbbN$ is a countable linearly independent set. Then is $b_i_i in mathbbN$ necessarily a Schauder basis for $B$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    Suppose that $B$ is a separable Hilbert space and $b_i_i in mathbbN$ is a countable linearly independent set. Then is $b_i_i in mathbbN$ necessarily a Schauder basis for $B$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Suppose that $B$ is a separable Hilbert space and $b_i_i in mathbbN$ is a countable linearly independent set. Then is $b_i_i in mathbbN$ necessarily a Schauder basis for $B$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose that $B$ is a separable Hilbert space and $b_i_i in mathbbN$ is a countable linearly independent set. Then is $b_i_i in mathbbN$ necessarily a Schauder basis for $B$?







      linear-algebra hilbert-spaces topological-vector-spaces schauder-basis hamel-basis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 6 hours ago







      N00ber

















      asked 8 hours ago









      N00berN00ber

      4062 silver badges11 bronze badges




      4062 silver badges11 bronze badges




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5












          $begingroup$

          Obviously not, because for example any subset is also independent, but a proper subset of a basis cannot be a basis.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago


















          4












          $begingroup$

          No. For example, the sequence
          $$beginalign b_0 &= (1,0,0,0,0,dots)\ b_1 &= (0,0,1,0,0,dots)\ b_2 &= (0,0,0,0,1,dots)\ vdots &= vdots endalign$$



          is linearly independent in $ell^2$, but not a Schauder basis. ($b_n$ has a $1$ in position $2n$ and zeros elsewhere.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Very clear answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Besides taking a proper subset of a Schauder basis, you can also take a superset that is still (algebraically) linearly independent. For instance, if $(e_n)_ninmathbbN$ is an orthonormal basis, then $e_n_ninmathbbNcupv$ is still linearly independent where $v=sum_n e_n/2^n$, but is not a Schauder basis since the representation of $v$ as an infinite linear combination of basis elements is not unique.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            4 hours ago














          Your Answer








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          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes








          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          5












          $begingroup$

          Obviously not, because for example any subset is also independent, but a proper subset of a basis cannot be a basis.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago















          5












          $begingroup$

          Obviously not, because for example any subset is also independent, but a proper subset of a basis cannot be a basis.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago













          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          Obviously not, because for example any subset is also independent, but a proper subset of a basis cannot be a basis.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Obviously not, because for example any subset is also independent, but a proper subset of a basis cannot be a basis.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 8 hours ago









          David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

          63.8k4 gold badges44 silver badges99 bronze badges




          63.8k4 gold badges44 silver badges99 bronze badges











          • $begingroup$
            Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago
















          • $begingroup$
            Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            6 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago















          $begingroup$
          Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          6 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Sorry there wsa a typo. I mean't a countable linearly independent set.
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          6 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          6 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @N00ber ??? It was clear that you were talking about a countable independent set - what does that have to do with the answer I gave?
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          6 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          6 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Oh I tried to accept both but that can't be done. It's good now :)
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          6 hours ago











          4












          $begingroup$

          No. For example, the sequence
          $$beginalign b_0 &= (1,0,0,0,0,dots)\ b_1 &= (0,0,1,0,0,dots)\ b_2 &= (0,0,0,0,1,dots)\ vdots &= vdots endalign$$



          is linearly independent in $ell^2$, but not a Schauder basis. ($b_n$ has a $1$ in position $2n$ and zeros elsewhere.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Very clear answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago















          4












          $begingroup$

          No. For example, the sequence
          $$beginalign b_0 &= (1,0,0,0,0,dots)\ b_1 &= (0,0,1,0,0,dots)\ b_2 &= (0,0,0,0,1,dots)\ vdots &= vdots endalign$$



          is linearly independent in $ell^2$, but not a Schauder basis. ($b_n$ has a $1$ in position $2n$ and zeros elsewhere.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Very clear answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago













          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          No. For example, the sequence
          $$beginalign b_0 &= (1,0,0,0,0,dots)\ b_1 &= (0,0,1,0,0,dots)\ b_2 &= (0,0,0,0,1,dots)\ vdots &= vdots endalign$$



          is linearly independent in $ell^2$, but not a Schauder basis. ($b_n$ has a $1$ in position $2n$ and zeros elsewhere.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No. For example, the sequence
          $$beginalign b_0 &= (1,0,0,0,0,dots)\ b_1 &= (0,0,1,0,0,dots)\ b_2 &= (0,0,0,0,1,dots)\ vdots &= vdots endalign$$



          is linearly independent in $ell^2$, but not a Schauder basis. ($b_n$ has a $1$ in position $2n$ and zeros elsewhere.)







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 8 hours ago









          Alex KruckmanAlex Kruckman

          30.8k3 gold badges29 silver badges60 bronze badges




          30.8k3 gold badges29 silver badges60 bronze badges











          • $begingroup$
            Very clear answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago
















          • $begingroup$
            Very clear answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            6 hours ago















          $begingroup$
          Very clear answer :)
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          6 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Very clear answer :)
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          6 hours ago











          3












          $begingroup$

          Besides taking a proper subset of a Schauder basis, you can also take a superset that is still (algebraically) linearly independent. For instance, if $(e_n)_ninmathbbN$ is an orthonormal basis, then $e_n_ninmathbbNcupv$ is still linearly independent where $v=sum_n e_n/2^n$, but is not a Schauder basis since the representation of $v$ as an infinite linear combination of basis elements is not unique.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            4 hours ago
















          3












          $begingroup$

          Besides taking a proper subset of a Schauder basis, you can also take a superset that is still (algebraically) linearly independent. For instance, if $(e_n)_ninmathbbN$ is an orthonormal basis, then $e_n_ninmathbbNcupv$ is still linearly independent where $v=sum_n e_n/2^n$, but is not a Schauder basis since the representation of $v$ as an infinite linear combination of basis elements is not unique.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            4 hours ago














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Besides taking a proper subset of a Schauder basis, you can also take a superset that is still (algebraically) linearly independent. For instance, if $(e_n)_ninmathbbN$ is an orthonormal basis, then $e_n_ninmathbbNcupv$ is still linearly independent where $v=sum_n e_n/2^n$, but is not a Schauder basis since the representation of $v$ as an infinite linear combination of basis elements is not unique.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Besides taking a proper subset of a Schauder basis, you can also take a superset that is still (algebraically) linearly independent. For instance, if $(e_n)_ninmathbbN$ is an orthonormal basis, then $e_n_ninmathbbNcupv$ is still linearly independent where $v=sum_n e_n/2^n$, but is not a Schauder basis since the representation of $v$ as an infinite linear combination of basis elements is not unique.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 8 hours ago









          Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

          201k14 gold badges234 silver badges365 bronze badges




          201k14 gold badges234 silver badges365 bronze badges











          • $begingroup$
            Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            4 hours ago

















          • $begingroup$
            Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
            $endgroup$
            – N00ber
            4 hours ago
















          $begingroup$
          Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          4 hours ago





          $begingroup$
          Wait, so every countable linearly-independent subset of $B$ cannot be "extended" to a Schauder basis of $B$?
          $endgroup$
          – N00ber
          4 hours ago


















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