Are polynomials with the same roots identical?Why can $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ be rewritten as $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$?imaginary numbers - how can I understand them - especially as they occur in 'roots' of polynomials?Finding roots of polynomials with rational coefficientsWhy are all polynomials with real roots factorizable?If two polynomials both of n degree have n identical real roots, are they equal? Proof?Check that two function $f(x,y)$ and $g(x,y)$ are identicalTangent at average of two roots of cubic with one real and two complex rootsFundamental theorem of algebra simple proof for rewriting with rootsJustify the algorithm used to create a polynomial whose roots are squares of the roots of the given polynomial (over $mathbb C$)Polynomials with roots of unity as rootsFundamental Theorem of Algebra proof, for max real roots of real polynomials - using only high school algebra-precalc?

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Are polynomials with the same roots identical?


Why can $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ be rewritten as $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$?imaginary numbers - how can I understand them - especially as they occur in 'roots' of polynomials?Finding roots of polynomials with rational coefficientsWhy are all polynomials with real roots factorizable?If two polynomials both of n degree have n identical real roots, are they equal? Proof?Check that two function $f(x,y)$ and $g(x,y)$ are identicalTangent at average of two roots of cubic with one real and two complex rootsFundamental theorem of algebra simple proof for rewriting with rootsJustify the algorithm used to create a polynomial whose roots are squares of the roots of the given polynomial (over $mathbb C$)Polynomials with roots of unity as rootsFundamental Theorem of Algebra proof, for max real roots of real polynomials - using only high school algebra-precalc?













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I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?










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$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago
















3












$begingroup$


I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?







algebra-precalculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago









cmk

1,957214




1,957214










asked 9 hours ago









Fac PamFac Pam

1456




1456











  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago

















  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago
















$begingroup$
The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
9 hours ago





$begingroup$
The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
9 hours ago











4 Answers
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No, they are not.



For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
    $endgroup$
    – Fac Pam
    8 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    8 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
    $endgroup$
    – Fac Pam
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    8 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    6 hours ago


















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No, they aren't:



$f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






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  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
    $endgroup$
    – Fac Pam
    4 hours ago


















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For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
$$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






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    1












    $begingroup$

    The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



    So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

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      active

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      4












      $begingroup$

      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago















      4












      $begingroup$

      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago













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      4








      4





      $begingroup$

      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited 9 hours ago

























      answered 9 hours ago









      ArthurArthur

      128k7122212




      128k7122212











      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago
















      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago















      $begingroup$
      Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago





      $begingroup$
      Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago













      $begingroup$
      @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago





      $begingroup$
      @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago













      $begingroup$
      Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago












      $begingroup$
      @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago





      $begingroup$
      @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago





      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      6 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      6 hours ago











      3












      $begingroup$

      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago















      3












      $begingroup$

      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago













      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$

      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 9 hours ago









      TeslaTesla

      859526




      859526











      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago
















      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago















      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      4 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      4 hours ago











      2












      $begingroup$

      For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



      For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
      $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
      for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



      For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        2












        $begingroup$

        For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



        For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
        $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
        for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



        For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



          For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
          $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
          for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



          For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



          For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
          $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
          for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



          For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 9 hours ago









          Clive NewsteadClive Newstead

          53.1k474138




          53.1k474138





















              1












              $begingroup$

              The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



              So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



                So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



                  So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



                  So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 9 hours ago









                  EhsaanEhsaan

                  1,728615




                  1,728615



























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