Are polynomials with the same roots identical?Why can $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ be rewritten as $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$?imaginary numbers - how can I understand them - especially as they occur in 'roots' of polynomials?Finding roots of polynomials with rational coefficientsWhy are all polynomials with real roots factorizable?If two polynomials both of n degree have n identical real roots, are they equal? Proof?Check that two function $f(x,y)$ and $g(x,y)$ are identicalTangent at average of two roots of cubic with one real and two complex rootsFundamental theorem of algebra simple proof for rewriting with rootsJustify the algorithm used to create a polynomial whose roots are squares of the roots of the given polynomial (over $mathbb C$)Polynomials with roots of unity as rootsFundamental Theorem of Algebra proof, for max real roots of real polynomials - using only high school algebra-precalc?

What ways have you found to get edits from non-LaTeX users?

Active low-pass filters --- good to what frequencies?

A word that means "blending into a community too much"

A map of non-pathological topology?

Someone whose aspirations exceed abilities or means

What aircraft was used as Air Force One for the flight between Southampton and Shannon?

Generate basis elements of the Steenrod algebra

Interval of parallel 5ths in the resolution of a German 6th chord

How to decline a wedding invitation from a friend I haven't seen in years?

How do free-speech protections in the United States apply in public to corporate misrepresentations?

Determining fair price for profitable mobile app business

Why didn't Voldemort recognize that Dumbledore was affected by his curse?

Why 1,2 printed by a command in $() is not interpolated?

Why am I getting a strange double quote (“) in Open Office instead of the ordinary one (")?

Why can my keyboard only digest 6 keypresses at a time?

How can I get an unreasonable manager to approve time off?

Wooden cooking layout

Non-aqueous eyes?

Electricity free spaceship

New pedal fell off maybe 50 miles after installation. Should I replace the entire crank, just the arm, or repair the thread?

Warning about needing "authorization" when booking ticket

Who won a Game of Bar Dice?

Fixing obscure 8080 emulator bug?

Is it a bad idea to to run 24 tap and shock lands in standard



Are polynomials with the same roots identical?


Why can $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ be rewritten as $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$?imaginary numbers - how can I understand them - especially as they occur in 'roots' of polynomials?Finding roots of polynomials with rational coefficientsWhy are all polynomials with real roots factorizable?If two polynomials both of n degree have n identical real roots, are they equal? Proof?Check that two function $f(x,y)$ and $g(x,y)$ are identicalTangent at average of two roots of cubic with one real and two complex rootsFundamental theorem of algebra simple proof for rewriting with rootsJustify the algorithm used to create a polynomial whose roots are squares of the roots of the given polynomial (over $mathbb C$)Polynomials with roots of unity as rootsFundamental Theorem of Algebra proof, for max real roots of real polynomials - using only high school algebra-precalc?













3












$begingroup$


I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago
















3












$begingroup$


I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know that polynomials can be refactored in terms of their roots. However, this must imply that two different polynomials have different roots (this is just what I think). So my question is: Are polynomials with the same roots identical? - if so, why?







algebra-precalculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago









cmk

1,957214




1,957214










asked 9 hours ago









Fac PamFac Pam

1456




1456











  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago

















  • $begingroup$
    The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – ajotatxe
    9 hours ago
















$begingroup$
The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
9 hours ago





$begingroup$
The polynomials $f(x)=1$, $g(x)=2$ and $h(x)=x^2+1$, $k(x)=x^2+x+1$ have the same roots over $Bbb R$.
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
9 hours ago











4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

No, they are not.



For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
    $endgroup$
    – Fac Pam
    8 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    8 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
    $endgroup$
    – Fac Pam
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    8 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    6 hours ago


















3












$begingroup$

No, they aren't:



$f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
    $endgroup$
    – Fac Pam
    4 hours ago


















2












$begingroup$

For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
$$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



    So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













      Your Answer








      StackExchange.ready(function()
      var channelOptions =
      tags: "".split(" "),
      id: "69"
      ;
      initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

      StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
      // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
      if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
      StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
      createEditor();
      );

      else
      createEditor();

      );

      function createEditor()
      StackExchange.prepareEditor(
      heartbeatType: 'answer',
      autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
      convertImagesToLinks: true,
      noModals: true,
      showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
      reputationToPostImages: 10,
      bindNavPrevention: true,
      postfix: "",
      imageUploader:
      brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
      contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
      allowUrls: true
      ,
      noCode: true, onDemand: true,
      discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
      ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
      );



      );













      draft saved

      draft discarded


















      StackExchange.ready(
      function ()
      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3253240%2fare-polynomials-with-the-same-roots-identical%23new-answer', 'question_page');

      );

      Post as a guest















      Required, but never shown

























      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      4












      $begingroup$

      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago















      4












      $begingroup$

      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago













      4












      4








      4





      $begingroup$

      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      No, they are not.



      For instance, $2x^2-2$ and $x^2-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      And, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", we have that $x^2-2x+1$ and $x-1$ have the same roots, yet they are not identical.



      Again, depending on what you mean by "the same roots", $x^3+x$ and $x^3+2x$ both only have one real root, yet they are not the same.



      However, if two monic polynomials have the same roots, with the same multiplicities, over some algebraicaly closed field (like the complex numbers $Bbb C$) then yes, they are identical.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited 9 hours ago

























      answered 9 hours ago









      ArthurArthur

      128k7122212




      128k7122212











      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago
















      • $begingroup$
        Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago











      • $begingroup$
        Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        8 hours ago










      • $begingroup$
        @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        8 hours ago







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Arthur
        6 hours ago















      $begingroup$
      Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago





      $begingroup$
      Aha okay, thanks. But then how come you can write a polynomial in terms of its roots? Like $(lambda - a)(lambda - d)-bc = 0$ can be written in terms of its roots $(lambda - lambda_1)(lambda - lambda_2) = 0$? Since having the same roots apparently does not imply that two polynomials are identical, using the roots as a way to write a unique polynomial then seems confusing to me
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago













      $begingroup$
      @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago





      $begingroup$
      @FacPam Those polynomials are monic, and since they are quadratic, there are always exactly two (possibly complex) roots when counted with multiplicity. And since they both have the two roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$, they do turn out to be the same polynomial. Wasn't this addressed in your previous question?
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago













      $begingroup$
      Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      Ahh, no it was not addressed - at least I do not think so. Possibly because I do not know the definition of "monic". I will look that up now. Thanks again
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      8 hours ago












      $begingroup$
      @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago





      $begingroup$
      @FacPam "Monic" just means that the highest-order term has coefficient $1$. That requirement is there to stop things like the first counterexample in my answer: $x^2-1$ is monic (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is $1$) while $2x^2-2$ is not (as the coefficient of $x^2$ is not $1$).
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      8 hours ago





      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      6 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      @FacPam No, the "same multiplicities" is to resolve the issue of $x-1$ versus $x^2 - 2x + 1$ (or, as others have pointed out, $x$ versus $x^2$). They have the same roots, but are clearly not the same. That's because these quadratic example polynomials have a double root, a root with multiplicity $2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      6 hours ago











      3












      $begingroup$

      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago















      3












      $begingroup$

      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago













      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$

      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      No, they aren't:



      $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ have the same roots. So if they are of the same degree, they must be identical up to a constant. But they don't even need to have same degree to have the same roots: $f_3(x)=x^2$ has the same root as $f_4(x)=x$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 9 hours ago









      TeslaTesla

      859526




      859526











      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago
















      • $begingroup$
        What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
        $endgroup$
        – Fac Pam
        4 hours ago















      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      4 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      What do you mean by "up to a constant" - $f_1(x)=(x+1)(x-2)$ and $f_2(x)=5(x+1)(x-2)$ are not identical?
      $endgroup$
      – Fac Pam
      4 hours ago











      2












      $begingroup$

      For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



      For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
      $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
      for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



      For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        2












        $begingroup$

        For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



        For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
        $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
        for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



        For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



          For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
          $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
          for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



          For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          For polynomials over $mathbbR$, the answer is no; for example, $f(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x(x^2+1)$ have the same roots over $mathbbR$—with the same multiplicities—but they are not equal.



          For polynomials over $mathbbC$, the answer is almost. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that every polynomial over $mathbbC$ of degree $n ge 1$ splits uniquely into $n$ linear factors. So if $f$ and $g$ have the same roots $alpha_1,alpha_2,dots,alpha_n$, listed with multiplicity, then
          $$ f(x) = lambda (x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) text and g(x) = mu(x-alpha_1)cdots(x-alpha_n) $$
          for some $0 ne lambda,mu in mathbbC$. So roots (with multiplicity) determine polynomials over $mathbbC$ up to a multiplicative constant and, in particular, monic polynomials over $mathbbC$ are uniquely determined by their roots.



          For polynomials over finite fields, the answer is very much no. There are polynomials that don't just have the same roots, but they have all the same values for every input. For example, the polynomials $f(x) = x$ and $g(x)=x^3$ over $mathbbF_2$ satisfy $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x in mathbbF_2$, and yet $f ne g$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 9 hours ago









          Clive NewsteadClive Newstead

          53.1k474138




          53.1k474138





















              1












              $begingroup$

              The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



              So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



                So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



                  So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The multiplicity counts too: for example $x$ and $x^2$ have the same roots, but are different polynomials. If two polynomials have all the same roots and all the same multiplicities, then yes they are equal. However, this statement needs to be interpreted correctly: you need to work over $mathbbC$ (or some other algebraically closed field). For example, over $mathbbR$, the polynomials $x^2+1$ and$ (x^2+1)^2$ have the same real roots (namely, they have no roots!) but are clearly not the same.



                  So: you have to count the roots with multiplicity in the algebraic closure.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 9 hours ago









                  EhsaanEhsaan

                  1,728615




                  1,728615



























                      draft saved

                      draft discarded
















































                      Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                      • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                      But avoid


                      • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                      • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

                      Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                      To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                      draft saved


                      draft discarded














                      StackExchange.ready(
                      function ()
                      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3253240%2fare-polynomials-with-the-same-roots-identical%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                      );

                      Post as a guest















                      Required, but never shown





















































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown

































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown







                      Popular posts from this blog

                      Invision Community Contents History See also References External links Navigation menuProprietaryinvisioncommunity.comIPS Community ForumsIPS Community Forumsthis blog entry"License Changes, IP.Board 3.4, and the Future""Interview -- Matt Mecham of Ibforums""CEO Invision Power Board, Matt Mecham Is a Liar, Thief!"IPB License Explanation 1.3, 1.3.1, 2.0, and 2.1ArchivedSecurity Fixes, Updates And Enhancements For IPB 1.3.1Archived"New Demo Accounts - Invision Power Services"the original"New Default Skin"the original"Invision Power Board 3.0.0 and Applications Released"the original"Archived copy"the original"Perpetual licenses being done away with""Release Notes - Invision Power Services""Introducing: IPS Community Suite 4!"Invision Community Release Notes

                      Canceling a color specificationRandomly assigning color to Graphics3D objects?Default color for Filling in Mathematica 9Coloring specific elements of sets with a prime modified order in an array plotHow to pick a color differing significantly from the colors already in a given color list?Detection of the text colorColor numbers based on their valueCan color schemes for use with ColorData include opacity specification?My dynamic color schemes

                      Ласкавець круглолистий Зміст Опис | Поширення | Галерея | Примітки | Посилання | Навігаційне меню58171138361-22960890446Bupleurum rotundifoliumEuro+Med PlantbasePlants of the World Online — Kew ScienceGermplasm Resources Information Network (GRIN)Ласкавецькн. VI : Літери Ком — Левиправивши або дописавши її