Why does a C.D.F need to be right-continuous?Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?Spectral expansion of a discrete function of a set of continuous random variables$P[X=Y]=0$ if $X,Y$ are i.i.d. with continuous c.d.f.why distribution function is right continuous?Example of non continuous random variable with continuous CDFProve that probability distribution function is continuous at a pointNotation i.i.d sampleDiscrete random variable whose cdf is not a step functionDoes there exist a mutivariate inverse?Conditional probability where the conditioning variable is continuousHow to understand such a random variable from the perspective of probability theory?

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Why does a C.D.F need to be right-continuous?


Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?Spectral expansion of a discrete function of a set of continuous random variables$P[X=Y]=0$ if $X,Y$ are i.i.d. with continuous c.d.f.why distribution function is right continuous?Example of non continuous random variable with continuous CDFProve that probability distribution function is continuous at a pointNotation i.i.d sampleDiscrete random variable whose cdf is not a step functionDoes there exist a mutivariate inverse?Conditional probability where the conditioning variable is continuousHow to understand such a random variable from the perspective of probability theory?













2












$begingroup$


As you may know, if $(Omega,mathcalF,mathbbP)$ is a probability space and $XcolonOmegatomathbbR^k$ is a random variable, then the cumulative distribution function of $X$ is defined as
$$F_X(a):=mathbbP(omegainOmega,colon X(omega)leq a)=mathbbPBig(X^-1Big(prod_iin [k](-infty,a_i]Big)Big),,text for each ainmathbbR^k.$$



This function is always right-continuous. That is, for each $xinmathbbR^k$ we have $lim_adownarrow xF_X(a)=F_X(x)$.



My question is: Why is this property important? Is there any capital result in probability theory that depends on it?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In an alternative history, c.d.f.'s might have been defined as $F_X(a)=mathbb P(omegainOmega:X(omega)<a)$ with strict inequality, and then these functions would be continuous from the left rather than from the right. As far as I can see, the choice between the standard definition and this alternative one is purely a matter of convention.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    3 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possibly interesting discussion: Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    3 hours ago







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Both the standard convention and @AndreasBlass's alternative history continuous-on-the-left convention suffer from this defect: if $Y=-X$, the cdf $F_X(x)$ is not simply $1-F_Y(-x)$. Some older authors (G.H. Hardy and D.V.Widder, eg) adopt a different convention: at jump discontinuities, $F(x)=(F(x-)+F(x+))/2$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    2 hours ago















2












$begingroup$


As you may know, if $(Omega,mathcalF,mathbbP)$ is a probability space and $XcolonOmegatomathbbR^k$ is a random variable, then the cumulative distribution function of $X$ is defined as
$$F_X(a):=mathbbP(omegainOmega,colon X(omega)leq a)=mathbbPBig(X^-1Big(prod_iin [k](-infty,a_i]Big)Big),,text for each ainmathbbR^k.$$



This function is always right-continuous. That is, for each $xinmathbbR^k$ we have $lim_adownarrow xF_X(a)=F_X(x)$.



My question is: Why is this property important? Is there any capital result in probability theory that depends on it?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In an alternative history, c.d.f.'s might have been defined as $F_X(a)=mathbb P(omegainOmega:X(omega)<a)$ with strict inequality, and then these functions would be continuous from the left rather than from the right. As far as I can see, the choice between the standard definition and this alternative one is purely a matter of convention.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    3 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possibly interesting discussion: Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    3 hours ago







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Both the standard convention and @AndreasBlass's alternative history continuous-on-the-left convention suffer from this defect: if $Y=-X$, the cdf $F_X(x)$ is not simply $1-F_Y(-x)$. Some older authors (G.H. Hardy and D.V.Widder, eg) adopt a different convention: at jump discontinuities, $F(x)=(F(x-)+F(x+))/2$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    2 hours ago













2












2








2





$begingroup$


As you may know, if $(Omega,mathcalF,mathbbP)$ is a probability space and $XcolonOmegatomathbbR^k$ is a random variable, then the cumulative distribution function of $X$ is defined as
$$F_X(a):=mathbbP(omegainOmega,colon X(omega)leq a)=mathbbPBig(X^-1Big(prod_iin [k](-infty,a_i]Big)Big),,text for each ainmathbbR^k.$$



This function is always right-continuous. That is, for each $xinmathbbR^k$ we have $lim_adownarrow xF_X(a)=F_X(x)$.



My question is: Why is this property important? Is there any capital result in probability theory that depends on it?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




As you may know, if $(Omega,mathcalF,mathbbP)$ is a probability space and $XcolonOmegatomathbbR^k$ is a random variable, then the cumulative distribution function of $X$ is defined as
$$F_X(a):=mathbbP(omegainOmega,colon X(omega)leq a)=mathbbPBig(X^-1Big(prod_iin [k](-infty,a_i]Big)Big),,text for each ainmathbbR^k.$$



This function is always right-continuous. That is, for each $xinmathbbR^k$ we have $lim_adownarrow xF_X(a)=F_X(x)$.



My question is: Why is this property important? Is there any capital result in probability theory that depends on it?







probability-theory soft-question






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 3 hours ago









Ariel SerranoniAriel Serranoni

7717




7717







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In an alternative history, c.d.f.'s might have been defined as $F_X(a)=mathbb P(omegainOmega:X(omega)<a)$ with strict inequality, and then these functions would be continuous from the left rather than from the right. As far as I can see, the choice between the standard definition and this alternative one is purely a matter of convention.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    3 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possibly interesting discussion: Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    3 hours ago







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Both the standard convention and @AndreasBlass's alternative history continuous-on-the-left convention suffer from this defect: if $Y=-X$, the cdf $F_X(x)$ is not simply $1-F_Y(-x)$. Some older authors (G.H. Hardy and D.V.Widder, eg) adopt a different convention: at jump discontinuities, $F(x)=(F(x-)+F(x+))/2$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    2 hours ago












  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In an alternative history, c.d.f.'s might have been defined as $F_X(a)=mathbb P(omegainOmega:X(omega)<a)$ with strict inequality, and then these functions would be continuous from the left rather than from the right. As far as I can see, the choice between the standard definition and this alternative one is purely a matter of convention.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    3 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possibly interesting discussion: Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    3 hours ago







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Both the standard convention and @AndreasBlass's alternative history continuous-on-the-left convention suffer from this defect: if $Y=-X$, the cdf $F_X(x)$ is not simply $1-F_Y(-x)$. Some older authors (G.H. Hardy and D.V.Widder, eg) adopt a different convention: at jump discontinuities, $F(x)=(F(x-)+F(x+))/2$.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    2 hours ago







4




4




$begingroup$
In an alternative history, c.d.f.'s might have been defined as $F_X(a)=mathbb P(omegainOmega:X(omega)<a)$ with strict inequality, and then these functions would be continuous from the left rather than from the right. As far as I can see, the choice between the standard definition and this alternative one is purely a matter of convention.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
3 hours ago





$begingroup$
In an alternative history, c.d.f.'s might have been defined as $F_X(a)=mathbb P(omegainOmega:X(omega)<a)$ with strict inequality, and then these functions would be continuous from the left rather than from the right. As far as I can see, the choice between the standard definition and this alternative one is purely a matter of convention.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
3 hours ago





1




1




$begingroup$
Possibly interesting discussion: Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago





$begingroup$
Possibly interesting discussion: Why aren't CDFs left-continuous?
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
3 hours ago





2




2




$begingroup$
Both the standard convention and @AndreasBlass's alternative history continuous-on-the-left convention suffer from this defect: if $Y=-X$, the cdf $F_X(x)$ is not simply $1-F_Y(-x)$. Some older authors (G.H. Hardy and D.V.Widder, eg) adopt a different convention: at jump discontinuities, $F(x)=(F(x-)+F(x+))/2$.
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
Both the standard convention and @AndreasBlass's alternative history continuous-on-the-left convention suffer from this defect: if $Y=-X$, the cdf $F_X(x)$ is not simply $1-F_Y(-x)$. Some older authors (G.H. Hardy and D.V.Widder, eg) adopt a different convention: at jump discontinuities, $F(x)=(F(x-)+F(x+))/2$.
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
2 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Well, in a finite measure (by which I mean a finite $sigma$-additive measure) space, if $A_i_iinBbb N$ is a sequence of measurable sets such that $A_isupseteq A_i+1$ for all $i$, then $muleft(bigcap_ninBbb NA_iright)=inf_ninBbb N mu(A_i)=lim_ntoinfty mu(A_i)$. In your special case where all the $A_i$-s are hyperrectangle in the form $Rleft(a^(i)right)=left(-infty,a^(i)_1right]timescdotstimesleft(-infty, a^(i)_kright]$ and $mu=Bbb P_X$, this translates to $$mathbb P_Xleft(R(a)right)=mathbb P_Xleft(bigcap_iinBbb N Rleft(a^(i)right)right)=lim_ntoinfty mathbb P_Xleft(Rleft(a^(i)right)right)$$ for all $a^(i)searrow a$. Which is in fact continuity on the right of the CDF.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Ariel Serranoni
    2 hours ago


















2












$begingroup$

This can be proven from the "continuity of probability" result for events that shrink to a limiting event:
$$A_nsearrow A implies P[A_n]rightarrow P[A]$$
(and this is derived from the countable additivity axiom).




One reason this is important is that it helps students to be precise when they draw pictures of CDF functions. They need to learn to be detail-oriented enough to respect this issue when points of discontinuity arise.



Another reason for importance is that it relates to this question:



Question: "What functions $F:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ are valid CDF functions?"



Answer: A function $F(x)$ is a valid CDF, meaning that there exists a random variable $X$ for which $P[Xleq x] = F(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, if and only if these four criteria are satisfied:




  • $F(x)$ is nondecreasing.


  • $lim_xrightarrow-infty F(x) = 0$.


  • $lim_xrightarrowinfty F(x)=1$.


  • $F(x)$ is right-continuous.

So the right-continuous property has a place of prominence in this fundamental question.




This fact is useful to resolve this natural question: Let $X_i_i=1^infty$ be i.i.d. random variables uniform over $[-1,1]$. Define
$$ L_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i quad forall n in 1, 2, 3, ...$$
Does there exist a random variable $Y$ for which the distribution of $L_n$ converges to the distribution of $Y$? The answer is "no" because:
$$ lim_nrightarrowinfty P[L_nleq x] = left{beginarrayll
1 & mbox if $x >0$\
1/2 & mbox if $x=0$\
0 & mbox if $x<0$
endarrayright.$$

and, because this is not right-continuous, this is not a valid CDF function for any random variable.



Of course, the CDF of the always-zero random variable $0$ is the right-continuous unit step function, which differs from the above function only at the point of discontinuity at $x=0$. Such issues are the reason why the definition of "$Y_nrightarrow Y$ in distribution" has the caveat that the convergence $P[Y_nleq y] rightarrow P[Yleq y]$ only needs to take place at points $y$ where $P[Yleq y]$ is continuous. With this caveat in mind, it is correct to say that $L_nrightarrow 0$ in distribution (and of course we also know $L_nrightarrow 0$ with probability 1 by the law of large numbers).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot for the example!!
    $endgroup$
    – Ariel Serranoni
    1 hour ago


















2












$begingroup$

It doesn't "have" to be. A distribution function is defined either as
$$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x])=mathbbP(Xleq x)$$



Then it is right continuous (follows from continuity of measures from above). It could be defined as
$$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x))=mathbbP(X<x)=1-mathbbP(Xgeq x)$$
Then it is left continuous, which again follows from continuity of measures.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    Well, in a finite measure (by which I mean a finite $sigma$-additive measure) space, if $A_i_iinBbb N$ is a sequence of measurable sets such that $A_isupseteq A_i+1$ for all $i$, then $muleft(bigcap_ninBbb NA_iright)=inf_ninBbb N mu(A_i)=lim_ntoinfty mu(A_i)$. In your special case where all the $A_i$-s are hyperrectangle in the form $Rleft(a^(i)right)=left(-infty,a^(i)_1right]timescdotstimesleft(-infty, a^(i)_kright]$ and $mu=Bbb P_X$, this translates to $$mathbb P_Xleft(R(a)right)=mathbb P_Xleft(bigcap_iinBbb N Rleft(a^(i)right)right)=lim_ntoinfty mathbb P_Xleft(Rleft(a^(i)right)right)$$ for all $a^(i)searrow a$. Which is in fact continuity on the right of the CDF.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
      $endgroup$
      – Saucy O'Path
      2 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      2 hours ago















    3












    $begingroup$

    Well, in a finite measure (by which I mean a finite $sigma$-additive measure) space, if $A_i_iinBbb N$ is a sequence of measurable sets such that $A_isupseteq A_i+1$ for all $i$, then $muleft(bigcap_ninBbb NA_iright)=inf_ninBbb N mu(A_i)=lim_ntoinfty mu(A_i)$. In your special case where all the $A_i$-s are hyperrectangle in the form $Rleft(a^(i)right)=left(-infty,a^(i)_1right]timescdotstimesleft(-infty, a^(i)_kright]$ and $mu=Bbb P_X$, this translates to $$mathbb P_Xleft(R(a)right)=mathbb P_Xleft(bigcap_iinBbb N Rleft(a^(i)right)right)=lim_ntoinfty mathbb P_Xleft(Rleft(a^(i)right)right)$$ for all $a^(i)searrow a$. Which is in fact continuity on the right of the CDF.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
      $endgroup$
      – Saucy O'Path
      2 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      2 hours ago













    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    Well, in a finite measure (by which I mean a finite $sigma$-additive measure) space, if $A_i_iinBbb N$ is a sequence of measurable sets such that $A_isupseteq A_i+1$ for all $i$, then $muleft(bigcap_ninBbb NA_iright)=inf_ninBbb N mu(A_i)=lim_ntoinfty mu(A_i)$. In your special case where all the $A_i$-s are hyperrectangle in the form $Rleft(a^(i)right)=left(-infty,a^(i)_1right]timescdotstimesleft(-infty, a^(i)_kright]$ and $mu=Bbb P_X$, this translates to $$mathbb P_Xleft(R(a)right)=mathbb P_Xleft(bigcap_iinBbb N Rleft(a^(i)right)right)=lim_ntoinfty mathbb P_Xleft(Rleft(a^(i)right)right)$$ for all $a^(i)searrow a$. Which is in fact continuity on the right of the CDF.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Well, in a finite measure (by which I mean a finite $sigma$-additive measure) space, if $A_i_iinBbb N$ is a sequence of measurable sets such that $A_isupseteq A_i+1$ for all $i$, then $muleft(bigcap_ninBbb NA_iright)=inf_ninBbb N mu(A_i)=lim_ntoinfty mu(A_i)$. In your special case where all the $A_i$-s are hyperrectangle in the form $Rleft(a^(i)right)=left(-infty,a^(i)_1right]timescdotstimesleft(-infty, a^(i)_kright]$ and $mu=Bbb P_X$, this translates to $$mathbb P_Xleft(R(a)right)=mathbb P_Xleft(bigcap_iinBbb N Rleft(a^(i)right)right)=lim_ntoinfty mathbb P_Xleft(Rleft(a^(i)right)right)$$ for all $a^(i)searrow a$. Which is in fact continuity on the right of the CDF.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 3 hours ago

























    answered 3 hours ago









    Saucy O'PathSaucy O'Path

    7,6441827




    7,6441827











    • $begingroup$
      I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
      $endgroup$
      – Saucy O'Path
      2 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      2 hours ago
















    • $begingroup$
      I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
      $endgroup$
      – Saucy O'Path
      2 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      2 hours ago















    $begingroup$
    I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago





    $begingroup$
    I see you answered while I was typing mine. Nevertheless there is some non-overlapping content in the answers so I will keep mine also.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago













    $begingroup$
    @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    2 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    @Michael no problem, it happens all the time.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    2 hours ago












    $begingroup$
    Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Ariel Serranoni
    2 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    Yep, totally agree. This is just how I proved it. Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Ariel Serranoni
    2 hours ago











    2












    $begingroup$

    This can be proven from the "continuity of probability" result for events that shrink to a limiting event:
    $$A_nsearrow A implies P[A_n]rightarrow P[A]$$
    (and this is derived from the countable additivity axiom).




    One reason this is important is that it helps students to be precise when they draw pictures of CDF functions. They need to learn to be detail-oriented enough to respect this issue when points of discontinuity arise.



    Another reason for importance is that it relates to this question:



    Question: "What functions $F:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ are valid CDF functions?"



    Answer: A function $F(x)$ is a valid CDF, meaning that there exists a random variable $X$ for which $P[Xleq x] = F(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, if and only if these four criteria are satisfied:




    • $F(x)$ is nondecreasing.


    • $lim_xrightarrow-infty F(x) = 0$.


    • $lim_xrightarrowinfty F(x)=1$.


    • $F(x)$ is right-continuous.

    So the right-continuous property has a place of prominence in this fundamental question.




    This fact is useful to resolve this natural question: Let $X_i_i=1^infty$ be i.i.d. random variables uniform over $[-1,1]$. Define
    $$ L_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i quad forall n in 1, 2, 3, ...$$
    Does there exist a random variable $Y$ for which the distribution of $L_n$ converges to the distribution of $Y$? The answer is "no" because:
    $$ lim_nrightarrowinfty P[L_nleq x] = left{beginarrayll
    1 & mbox if $x >0$\
    1/2 & mbox if $x=0$\
    0 & mbox if $x<0$
    endarrayright.$$

    and, because this is not right-continuous, this is not a valid CDF function for any random variable.



    Of course, the CDF of the always-zero random variable $0$ is the right-continuous unit step function, which differs from the above function only at the point of discontinuity at $x=0$. Such issues are the reason why the definition of "$Y_nrightarrow Y$ in distribution" has the caveat that the convergence $P[Y_nleq y] rightarrow P[Yleq y]$ only needs to take place at points $y$ where $P[Yleq y]$ is continuous. With this caveat in mind, it is correct to say that $L_nrightarrow 0$ in distribution (and of course we also know $L_nrightarrow 0$ with probability 1 by the law of large numbers).






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot for the example!!
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      1 hour ago















    2












    $begingroup$

    This can be proven from the "continuity of probability" result for events that shrink to a limiting event:
    $$A_nsearrow A implies P[A_n]rightarrow P[A]$$
    (and this is derived from the countable additivity axiom).




    One reason this is important is that it helps students to be precise when they draw pictures of CDF functions. They need to learn to be detail-oriented enough to respect this issue when points of discontinuity arise.



    Another reason for importance is that it relates to this question:



    Question: "What functions $F:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ are valid CDF functions?"



    Answer: A function $F(x)$ is a valid CDF, meaning that there exists a random variable $X$ for which $P[Xleq x] = F(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, if and only if these four criteria are satisfied:




    • $F(x)$ is nondecreasing.


    • $lim_xrightarrow-infty F(x) = 0$.


    • $lim_xrightarrowinfty F(x)=1$.


    • $F(x)$ is right-continuous.

    So the right-continuous property has a place of prominence in this fundamental question.




    This fact is useful to resolve this natural question: Let $X_i_i=1^infty$ be i.i.d. random variables uniform over $[-1,1]$. Define
    $$ L_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i quad forall n in 1, 2, 3, ...$$
    Does there exist a random variable $Y$ for which the distribution of $L_n$ converges to the distribution of $Y$? The answer is "no" because:
    $$ lim_nrightarrowinfty P[L_nleq x] = left{beginarrayll
    1 & mbox if $x >0$\
    1/2 & mbox if $x=0$\
    0 & mbox if $x<0$
    endarrayright.$$

    and, because this is not right-continuous, this is not a valid CDF function for any random variable.



    Of course, the CDF of the always-zero random variable $0$ is the right-continuous unit step function, which differs from the above function only at the point of discontinuity at $x=0$. Such issues are the reason why the definition of "$Y_nrightarrow Y$ in distribution" has the caveat that the convergence $P[Y_nleq y] rightarrow P[Yleq y]$ only needs to take place at points $y$ where $P[Yleq y]$ is continuous. With this caveat in mind, it is correct to say that $L_nrightarrow 0$ in distribution (and of course we also know $L_nrightarrow 0$ with probability 1 by the law of large numbers).






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot for the example!!
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      1 hour ago













    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    This can be proven from the "continuity of probability" result for events that shrink to a limiting event:
    $$A_nsearrow A implies P[A_n]rightarrow P[A]$$
    (and this is derived from the countable additivity axiom).




    One reason this is important is that it helps students to be precise when they draw pictures of CDF functions. They need to learn to be detail-oriented enough to respect this issue when points of discontinuity arise.



    Another reason for importance is that it relates to this question:



    Question: "What functions $F:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ are valid CDF functions?"



    Answer: A function $F(x)$ is a valid CDF, meaning that there exists a random variable $X$ for which $P[Xleq x] = F(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, if and only if these four criteria are satisfied:




    • $F(x)$ is nondecreasing.


    • $lim_xrightarrow-infty F(x) = 0$.


    • $lim_xrightarrowinfty F(x)=1$.


    • $F(x)$ is right-continuous.

    So the right-continuous property has a place of prominence in this fundamental question.




    This fact is useful to resolve this natural question: Let $X_i_i=1^infty$ be i.i.d. random variables uniform over $[-1,1]$. Define
    $$ L_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i quad forall n in 1, 2, 3, ...$$
    Does there exist a random variable $Y$ for which the distribution of $L_n$ converges to the distribution of $Y$? The answer is "no" because:
    $$ lim_nrightarrowinfty P[L_nleq x] = left{beginarrayll
    1 & mbox if $x >0$\
    1/2 & mbox if $x=0$\
    0 & mbox if $x<0$
    endarrayright.$$

    and, because this is not right-continuous, this is not a valid CDF function for any random variable.



    Of course, the CDF of the always-zero random variable $0$ is the right-continuous unit step function, which differs from the above function only at the point of discontinuity at $x=0$. Such issues are the reason why the definition of "$Y_nrightarrow Y$ in distribution" has the caveat that the convergence $P[Y_nleq y] rightarrow P[Yleq y]$ only needs to take place at points $y$ where $P[Yleq y]$ is continuous. With this caveat in mind, it is correct to say that $L_nrightarrow 0$ in distribution (and of course we also know $L_nrightarrow 0$ with probability 1 by the law of large numbers).






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    This can be proven from the "continuity of probability" result for events that shrink to a limiting event:
    $$A_nsearrow A implies P[A_n]rightarrow P[A]$$
    (and this is derived from the countable additivity axiom).




    One reason this is important is that it helps students to be precise when they draw pictures of CDF functions. They need to learn to be detail-oriented enough to respect this issue when points of discontinuity arise.



    Another reason for importance is that it relates to this question:



    Question: "What functions $F:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ are valid CDF functions?"



    Answer: A function $F(x)$ is a valid CDF, meaning that there exists a random variable $X$ for which $P[Xleq x] = F(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, if and only if these four criteria are satisfied:




    • $F(x)$ is nondecreasing.


    • $lim_xrightarrow-infty F(x) = 0$.


    • $lim_xrightarrowinfty F(x)=1$.


    • $F(x)$ is right-continuous.

    So the right-continuous property has a place of prominence in this fundamental question.




    This fact is useful to resolve this natural question: Let $X_i_i=1^infty$ be i.i.d. random variables uniform over $[-1,1]$. Define
    $$ L_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i quad forall n in 1, 2, 3, ...$$
    Does there exist a random variable $Y$ for which the distribution of $L_n$ converges to the distribution of $Y$? The answer is "no" because:
    $$ lim_nrightarrowinfty P[L_nleq x] = left{beginarrayll
    1 & mbox if $x >0$\
    1/2 & mbox if $x=0$\
    0 & mbox if $x<0$
    endarrayright.$$

    and, because this is not right-continuous, this is not a valid CDF function for any random variable.



    Of course, the CDF of the always-zero random variable $0$ is the right-continuous unit step function, which differs from the above function only at the point of discontinuity at $x=0$. Such issues are the reason why the definition of "$Y_nrightarrow Y$ in distribution" has the caveat that the convergence $P[Y_nleq y] rightarrow P[Yleq y]$ only needs to take place at points $y$ where $P[Yleq y]$ is continuous. With this caveat in mind, it is correct to say that $L_nrightarrow 0$ in distribution (and of course we also know $L_nrightarrow 0$ with probability 1 by the law of large numbers).







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 2 hours ago

























    answered 3 hours ago









    MichaelMichael

    13.6k11429




    13.6k11429











    • $begingroup$
      I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot for the example!!
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      1 hour ago
















    • $begingroup$
      I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
      $endgroup$
      – Michael
      2 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot for the example!!
      $endgroup$
      – Ariel Serranoni
      1 hour ago















    $begingroup$
    I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago





    $begingroup$
    I suppose this raises the natural question "which functions $h(x)$ can be pointwise limits of distributions $lim_nrightarrowinftyP[Y_nleq y]$"? In particular, is it possible to construct an example that replaces the "$1/2$ if $x=0$" in the above example with "$1/3$ if $x=0$"?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago













    $begingroup$
    I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago





    $begingroup$
    I suppose the central limit theorem can help answer the question in the special case when $Y_n$ is constructed from i.i.d. random variables with finite mean and variance, in that case the $1/2$ is unavoidable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago













    $begingroup$
    I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago





    $begingroup$
    I (think) the answer to the general $h(x)$ question above is "any $h(x)$ function that is nondecreasing and satisfies $0leq h(x)leq 1$ for all $x in mathbbR$." Now if $Y_n = frac1nsum_i=1^n X_i$ for $X_i$ iid with zero mean but infinite variance, I don't know if the $1/2$ is fundamental anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    2 hours ago













    $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot for the example!!
    $endgroup$
    – Ariel Serranoni
    1 hour ago




    $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot for the example!!
    $endgroup$
    – Ariel Serranoni
    1 hour ago











    2












    $begingroup$

    It doesn't "have" to be. A distribution function is defined either as
    $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x])=mathbbP(Xleq x)$$



    Then it is right continuous (follows from continuity of measures from above). It could be defined as
    $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x))=mathbbP(X<x)=1-mathbbP(Xgeq x)$$
    Then it is left continuous, which again follows from continuity of measures.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$

      It doesn't "have" to be. A distribution function is defined either as
      $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x])=mathbbP(Xleq x)$$



      Then it is right continuous (follows from continuity of measures from above). It could be defined as
      $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x))=mathbbP(X<x)=1-mathbbP(Xgeq x)$$
      Then it is left continuous, which again follows from continuity of measures.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        It doesn't "have" to be. A distribution function is defined either as
        $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x])=mathbbP(Xleq x)$$



        Then it is right continuous (follows from continuity of measures from above). It could be defined as
        $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x))=mathbbP(X<x)=1-mathbbP(Xgeq x)$$
        Then it is left continuous, which again follows from continuity of measures.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        It doesn't "have" to be. A distribution function is defined either as
        $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x])=mathbbP(Xleq x)$$



        Then it is right continuous (follows from continuity of measures from above). It could be defined as
        $$F_X(x)=mathbbP_X((-infty,x))=mathbbP(X<x)=1-mathbbP(Xgeq x)$$
        Then it is left continuous, which again follows from continuity of measures.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 2 hours ago









        badatmathbadatmath

        759416




        759416



























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