How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?How should we understand the “Cleansing of the Temple”?To whom should we attribute John 3:16?What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?What does it mean, “the darkness did not comprehend it”? (Jn 1:5)Two words for love in John 21:15–17How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?How should πῶς οὗτος γράμματα οἶδεν μὴ μεμαθηκώς; (NA27) be translated in John 7:15?God vs devil - How much does God allow?

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How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?


How should we understand the “Cleansing of the Temple”?To whom should we attribute John 3:16?What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?What does it mean, “the darkness did not comprehend it”? (Jn 1:5)Two words for love in John 21:15–17How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?How should πῶς οὗτος γράμματα οἶδεν μὴ μεμαθηκώς; (NA27) be translated in John 7:15?God vs devil - How much does God allow?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








3















How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?




ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27)




While many more literal translations translate λαμβάνω as receive or accept:




Not that the testimony that I receive is from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, ESV)



I don’t receive man’s testimony, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, HCSB)



Not that I accept human testimony; but I mention it that you may be saved. (John 5:34–35, NIV)




The more paraphrased translations translate λαμβάνω differently, but with a somewhat common theme:




It is not that I must have a human witness; I say this only in order that you may be saved. (John 5:34, TEV)



Of course, I have no need of human witnesses, but I say these things so you might be saved. (John 5:34, NLT)



It is not that I need what humans say; I tell you this so you can be saved. (John 5:34, NCB)



But my purpose is not to get your vote, and not to appeal to mere human testimony. I’m speaking to you this way so that you will be saved. (John 5:34, The Message)




More specifically, I’m asking is there a linguistic reason for how λαμβάνω is paraphrased, or is it solely based on context? Even BAGD only assigns a more literal meaning to this verse:




d. receive, accept … J 5:34; ….




Arndt, W., Gingrich, F. W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (1979). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur (p. 464). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.










share|improve this question






















  • There is also συλλαμβανο (conceive or take) and καταλαμβανο (comprehend or apprehend) to consider. Which makes the 'paraphrased' translations look somewhat inadequate, in my own view. +1.

    – Nigel J
    7 hours ago












  • I like to consult the LXX and see what Hebrew word/phrase is translated in the Greek. And vice versa. Especially since the NT authors I imagine thought in Hebrew and it was their mother tongue even if they were born outside of Israel. I found this word to be translated from נסה / נשׂא nâśâ' / nâsâh and the best word I see in the English for both in English would be ‘regard’. As in to take into account, to consider. Examples 2 kings 3:14, Isaiah 49:25, Jeremiah 23:39, Ezekiel 24:16. Thought I’d share, might help some.

    – Autodidact
    2 hours ago

















3















How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?




ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27)




While many more literal translations translate λαμβάνω as receive or accept:




Not that the testimony that I receive is from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, ESV)



I don’t receive man’s testimony, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, HCSB)



Not that I accept human testimony; but I mention it that you may be saved. (John 5:34–35, NIV)




The more paraphrased translations translate λαμβάνω differently, but with a somewhat common theme:




It is not that I must have a human witness; I say this only in order that you may be saved. (John 5:34, TEV)



Of course, I have no need of human witnesses, but I say these things so you might be saved. (John 5:34, NLT)



It is not that I need what humans say; I tell you this so you can be saved. (John 5:34, NCB)



But my purpose is not to get your vote, and not to appeal to mere human testimony. I’m speaking to you this way so that you will be saved. (John 5:34, The Message)




More specifically, I’m asking is there a linguistic reason for how λαμβάνω is paraphrased, or is it solely based on context? Even BAGD only assigns a more literal meaning to this verse:




d. receive, accept … J 5:34; ….




Arndt, W., Gingrich, F. W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (1979). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur (p. 464). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.










share|improve this question






















  • There is also συλλαμβανο (conceive or take) and καταλαμβανο (comprehend or apprehend) to consider. Which makes the 'paraphrased' translations look somewhat inadequate, in my own view. +1.

    – Nigel J
    7 hours ago












  • I like to consult the LXX and see what Hebrew word/phrase is translated in the Greek. And vice versa. Especially since the NT authors I imagine thought in Hebrew and it was their mother tongue even if they were born outside of Israel. I found this word to be translated from נסה / נשׂא nâśâ' / nâsâh and the best word I see in the English for both in English would be ‘regard’. As in to take into account, to consider. Examples 2 kings 3:14, Isaiah 49:25, Jeremiah 23:39, Ezekiel 24:16. Thought I’d share, might help some.

    – Autodidact
    2 hours ago













3












3








3








How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?




ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27)




While many more literal translations translate λαμβάνω as receive or accept:




Not that the testimony that I receive is from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, ESV)



I don’t receive man’s testimony, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, HCSB)



Not that I accept human testimony; but I mention it that you may be saved. (John 5:34–35, NIV)




The more paraphrased translations translate λαμβάνω differently, but with a somewhat common theme:




It is not that I must have a human witness; I say this only in order that you may be saved. (John 5:34, TEV)



Of course, I have no need of human witnesses, but I say these things so you might be saved. (John 5:34, NLT)



It is not that I need what humans say; I tell you this so you can be saved. (John 5:34, NCB)



But my purpose is not to get your vote, and not to appeal to mere human testimony. I’m speaking to you this way so that you will be saved. (John 5:34, The Message)




More specifically, I’m asking is there a linguistic reason for how λαμβάνω is paraphrased, or is it solely based on context? Even BAGD only assigns a more literal meaning to this verse:




d. receive, accept … J 5:34; ….




Arndt, W., Gingrich, F. W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (1979). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur (p. 464). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.










share|improve this question














How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?




ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27)




While many more literal translations translate λαμβάνω as receive or accept:




Not that the testimony that I receive is from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, ESV)



I don’t receive man’s testimony, but I say these things so that you may be saved. (John 5:34, HCSB)



Not that I accept human testimony; but I mention it that you may be saved. (John 5:34–35, NIV)




The more paraphrased translations translate λαμβάνω differently, but with a somewhat common theme:




It is not that I must have a human witness; I say this only in order that you may be saved. (John 5:34, TEV)



Of course, I have no need of human witnesses, but I say these things so you might be saved. (John 5:34, NLT)



It is not that I need what humans say; I tell you this so you can be saved. (John 5:34, NCB)



But my purpose is not to get your vote, and not to appeal to mere human testimony. I’m speaking to you this way so that you will be saved. (John 5:34, The Message)




More specifically, I’m asking is there a linguistic reason for how λαμβάνω is paraphrased, or is it solely based on context? Even BAGD only assigns a more literal meaning to this verse:




d. receive, accept … J 5:34; ….




Arndt, W., Gingrich, F. W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (1979). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature : a translation and adaption of the fourth revised and augmented edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-deutsches Worterbuch zu den Schrift en des Neuen Testaments und der ubrigen urchristlichen Literatur (p. 464). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.







greek john new-testament






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asked 8 hours ago









Perry WebbPerry Webb

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  • There is also συλλαμβανο (conceive or take) and καταλαμβανο (comprehend or apprehend) to consider. Which makes the 'paraphrased' translations look somewhat inadequate, in my own view. +1.

    – Nigel J
    7 hours ago












  • I like to consult the LXX and see what Hebrew word/phrase is translated in the Greek. And vice versa. Especially since the NT authors I imagine thought in Hebrew and it was their mother tongue even if they were born outside of Israel. I found this word to be translated from נסה / נשׂא nâśâ' / nâsâh and the best word I see in the English for both in English would be ‘regard’. As in to take into account, to consider. Examples 2 kings 3:14, Isaiah 49:25, Jeremiah 23:39, Ezekiel 24:16. Thought I’d share, might help some.

    – Autodidact
    2 hours ago

















  • There is also συλλαμβανο (conceive or take) and καταλαμβανο (comprehend or apprehend) to consider. Which makes the 'paraphrased' translations look somewhat inadequate, in my own view. +1.

    – Nigel J
    7 hours ago












  • I like to consult the LXX and see what Hebrew word/phrase is translated in the Greek. And vice versa. Especially since the NT authors I imagine thought in Hebrew and it was their mother tongue even if they were born outside of Israel. I found this word to be translated from נסה / נשׂא nâśâ' / nâsâh and the best word I see in the English for both in English would be ‘regard’. As in to take into account, to consider. Examples 2 kings 3:14, Isaiah 49:25, Jeremiah 23:39, Ezekiel 24:16. Thought I’d share, might help some.

    – Autodidact
    2 hours ago
















There is also συλλαμβανο (conceive or take) and καταλαμβανο (comprehend or apprehend) to consider. Which makes the 'paraphrased' translations look somewhat inadequate, in my own view. +1.

– Nigel J
7 hours ago






There is also συλλαμβανο (conceive or take) and καταλαμβανο (comprehend or apprehend) to consider. Which makes the 'paraphrased' translations look somewhat inadequate, in my own view. +1.

– Nigel J
7 hours ago














I like to consult the LXX and see what Hebrew word/phrase is translated in the Greek. And vice versa. Especially since the NT authors I imagine thought in Hebrew and it was their mother tongue even if they were born outside of Israel. I found this word to be translated from נסה / נשׂא nâśâ' / nâsâh and the best word I see in the English for both in English would be ‘regard’. As in to take into account, to consider. Examples 2 kings 3:14, Isaiah 49:25, Jeremiah 23:39, Ezekiel 24:16. Thought I’d share, might help some.

– Autodidact
2 hours ago





I like to consult the LXX and see what Hebrew word/phrase is translated in the Greek. And vice versa. Especially since the NT authors I imagine thought in Hebrew and it was their mother tongue even if they were born outside of Israel. I found this word to be translated from נסה / נשׂא nâśâ' / nâsâh and the best word I see in the English for both in English would be ‘regard’. As in to take into account, to consider. Examples 2 kings 3:14, Isaiah 49:25, Jeremiah 23:39, Ezekiel 24:16. Thought I’d share, might help some.

– Autodidact
2 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1














BDAG offers two translations of John 5:34:




  • the testimony I receive is not from a human being, or,


  • I will not accept mere human testimony (note that "mere" had to be added)

The matter at stake here is: What, primarily, is the word "not" [οὐ (ou)] attached to? In the first option above it is attached to "from man" and thus serves as a negation of the entire sentence; and in the second option it is attached to "receive/accept".



The most literal word-for-word rendering (which is often misleading) is the first because of placement and proximity. However, οὐ (ou) is an adverb of negation which (strictly grammatically) applies to the verb, λαμβάνω (lambanō = accept/receive) which lends weight to the second option - hence the more literal Bible versions.



Neither option is completely wrong. I presume that the more paraphrased versions have noticed the literary contrast made between v33 & v34 - the Jews wanted John (a human's) testimony (v33), but Jesus does not accept nor need a human testimony.



I personally prefer "But I do not accept the testimony from humans … ", because the alternative implies here (but is absent from the immediate text) that Jesus has available the testimony from heaven. While this is true, that is not what the text is saying. Jesus wants us to accept Him for what He is, "so that you might be saved" (John 5:34b).



The Pulpit Commentary notes that:




Verse 34. - But I for my part receive not the witness which affirms my
Sonship from a man; or, yet the witness which I receive is not from
man. Some have given the stronger meaning of "take hold," or "snatch,"
or "strive after," to λαμβάνω. But this is unnecessary, for emphasis
is laid on the article, "the witness," which is real, infallible,
convincing, commanding, must come from the highest source of all. Yet,
though Christ cannot depend upon John's testimony, it ought to have
had weight with his hearers. It called them to repentance, to holy
living, to faith in the Coming One.







share|improve this answer

























  • I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

    – Perry Webb
    5 hours ago


















1














Thayer has two pages on the verb λαμβανο which are headed up :




I - to take with the hand, lay hold of



II - to receive




My 1,700 page Liddell & Scott (American Edition 1854), similarly has a couple of columns summed up as :




A - to take hold of, grasp, seize



B - to have given one, receive, get




The KJV, Young's Literal, and the Englishman's Greek New Testament all agree :




But I receive not testimony from man [KJV]



But I do not receive testimony from man [YLT]



I but not from man witness receive [EGNT literal]




The Douay Rheims also agrees :




But I receive not testimony from man [D-R]




and the Wycliffe . . and J N Darby . . . and Tyndale :




But I take not witness from man [Wyc]



But I do not receive witness from man [JND]



But I receive not the record of man [Tyn]




I can see no reason whatsoever for the 'paraphrased' versions to depart from the above.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

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    active

    oldest

    votes









    1














    BDAG offers two translations of John 5:34:




    • the testimony I receive is not from a human being, or,


    • I will not accept mere human testimony (note that "mere" had to be added)

    The matter at stake here is: What, primarily, is the word "not" [οὐ (ou)] attached to? In the first option above it is attached to "from man" and thus serves as a negation of the entire sentence; and in the second option it is attached to "receive/accept".



    The most literal word-for-word rendering (which is often misleading) is the first because of placement and proximity. However, οὐ (ou) is an adverb of negation which (strictly grammatically) applies to the verb, λαμβάνω (lambanō = accept/receive) which lends weight to the second option - hence the more literal Bible versions.



    Neither option is completely wrong. I presume that the more paraphrased versions have noticed the literary contrast made between v33 & v34 - the Jews wanted John (a human's) testimony (v33), but Jesus does not accept nor need a human testimony.



    I personally prefer "But I do not accept the testimony from humans … ", because the alternative implies here (but is absent from the immediate text) that Jesus has available the testimony from heaven. While this is true, that is not what the text is saying. Jesus wants us to accept Him for what He is, "so that you might be saved" (John 5:34b).



    The Pulpit Commentary notes that:




    Verse 34. - But I for my part receive not the witness which affirms my
    Sonship from a man; or, yet the witness which I receive is not from
    man. Some have given the stronger meaning of "take hold," or "snatch,"
    or "strive after," to λαμβάνω. But this is unnecessary, for emphasis
    is laid on the article, "the witness," which is real, infallible,
    convincing, commanding, must come from the highest source of all. Yet,
    though Christ cannot depend upon John's testimony, it ought to have
    had weight with his hearers. It called them to repentance, to holy
    living, to faith in the Coming One.







    share|improve this answer

























    • I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

      – Perry Webb
      5 hours ago















    1














    BDAG offers two translations of John 5:34:




    • the testimony I receive is not from a human being, or,


    • I will not accept mere human testimony (note that "mere" had to be added)

    The matter at stake here is: What, primarily, is the word "not" [οὐ (ou)] attached to? In the first option above it is attached to "from man" and thus serves as a negation of the entire sentence; and in the second option it is attached to "receive/accept".



    The most literal word-for-word rendering (which is often misleading) is the first because of placement and proximity. However, οὐ (ou) is an adverb of negation which (strictly grammatically) applies to the verb, λαμβάνω (lambanō = accept/receive) which lends weight to the second option - hence the more literal Bible versions.



    Neither option is completely wrong. I presume that the more paraphrased versions have noticed the literary contrast made between v33 & v34 - the Jews wanted John (a human's) testimony (v33), but Jesus does not accept nor need a human testimony.



    I personally prefer "But I do not accept the testimony from humans … ", because the alternative implies here (but is absent from the immediate text) that Jesus has available the testimony from heaven. While this is true, that is not what the text is saying. Jesus wants us to accept Him for what He is, "so that you might be saved" (John 5:34b).



    The Pulpit Commentary notes that:




    Verse 34. - But I for my part receive not the witness which affirms my
    Sonship from a man; or, yet the witness which I receive is not from
    man. Some have given the stronger meaning of "take hold," or "snatch,"
    or "strive after," to λαμβάνω. But this is unnecessary, for emphasis
    is laid on the article, "the witness," which is real, infallible,
    convincing, commanding, must come from the highest source of all. Yet,
    though Christ cannot depend upon John's testimony, it ought to have
    had weight with his hearers. It called them to repentance, to holy
    living, to faith in the Coming One.







    share|improve this answer

























    • I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

      – Perry Webb
      5 hours ago













    1












    1








    1







    BDAG offers two translations of John 5:34:




    • the testimony I receive is not from a human being, or,


    • I will not accept mere human testimony (note that "mere" had to be added)

    The matter at stake here is: What, primarily, is the word "not" [οὐ (ou)] attached to? In the first option above it is attached to "from man" and thus serves as a negation of the entire sentence; and in the second option it is attached to "receive/accept".



    The most literal word-for-word rendering (which is often misleading) is the first because of placement and proximity. However, οὐ (ou) is an adverb of negation which (strictly grammatically) applies to the verb, λαμβάνω (lambanō = accept/receive) which lends weight to the second option - hence the more literal Bible versions.



    Neither option is completely wrong. I presume that the more paraphrased versions have noticed the literary contrast made between v33 & v34 - the Jews wanted John (a human's) testimony (v33), but Jesus does not accept nor need a human testimony.



    I personally prefer "But I do not accept the testimony from humans … ", because the alternative implies here (but is absent from the immediate text) that Jesus has available the testimony from heaven. While this is true, that is not what the text is saying. Jesus wants us to accept Him for what He is, "so that you might be saved" (John 5:34b).



    The Pulpit Commentary notes that:




    Verse 34. - But I for my part receive not the witness which affirms my
    Sonship from a man; or, yet the witness which I receive is not from
    man. Some have given the stronger meaning of "take hold," or "snatch,"
    or "strive after," to λαμβάνω. But this is unnecessary, for emphasis
    is laid on the article, "the witness," which is real, infallible,
    convincing, commanding, must come from the highest source of all. Yet,
    though Christ cannot depend upon John's testimony, it ought to have
    had weight with his hearers. It called them to repentance, to holy
    living, to faith in the Coming One.







    share|improve this answer















    BDAG offers two translations of John 5:34:




    • the testimony I receive is not from a human being, or,


    • I will not accept mere human testimony (note that "mere" had to be added)

    The matter at stake here is: What, primarily, is the word "not" [οὐ (ou)] attached to? In the first option above it is attached to "from man" and thus serves as a negation of the entire sentence; and in the second option it is attached to "receive/accept".



    The most literal word-for-word rendering (which is often misleading) is the first because of placement and proximity. However, οὐ (ou) is an adverb of negation which (strictly grammatically) applies to the verb, λαμβάνω (lambanō = accept/receive) which lends weight to the second option - hence the more literal Bible versions.



    Neither option is completely wrong. I presume that the more paraphrased versions have noticed the literary contrast made between v33 & v34 - the Jews wanted John (a human's) testimony (v33), but Jesus does not accept nor need a human testimony.



    I personally prefer "But I do not accept the testimony from humans … ", because the alternative implies here (but is absent from the immediate text) that Jesus has available the testimony from heaven. While this is true, that is not what the text is saying. Jesus wants us to accept Him for what He is, "so that you might be saved" (John 5:34b).



    The Pulpit Commentary notes that:




    Verse 34. - But I for my part receive not the witness which affirms my
    Sonship from a man; or, yet the witness which I receive is not from
    man. Some have given the stronger meaning of "take hold," or "snatch,"
    or "strive after," to λαμβάνω. But this is unnecessary, for emphasis
    is laid on the article, "the witness," which is real, infallible,
    convincing, commanding, must come from the highest source of all. Yet,
    though Christ cannot depend upon John's testimony, it ought to have
    had weight with his hearers. It called them to repentance, to holy
    living, to faith in the Coming One.








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    edited 7 hours ago

























    answered 7 hours ago









    Mac's MusingsMac's Musings

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    • I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

      – Perry Webb
      5 hours ago

















    • I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

      – Perry Webb
      5 hours ago
















    I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

    – Perry Webb
    5 hours ago





    I guess if this were a Greek or Hebrew idiom meaning what was paraphrased, we would find it stated in the commentaries. The Pulpit Commentary makes sense, but is not easy to translate.

    – Perry Webb
    5 hours ago













    1














    Thayer has two pages on the verb λαμβανο which are headed up :




    I - to take with the hand, lay hold of



    II - to receive




    My 1,700 page Liddell & Scott (American Edition 1854), similarly has a couple of columns summed up as :




    A - to take hold of, grasp, seize



    B - to have given one, receive, get




    The KJV, Young's Literal, and the Englishman's Greek New Testament all agree :




    But I receive not testimony from man [KJV]



    But I do not receive testimony from man [YLT]



    I but not from man witness receive [EGNT literal]




    The Douay Rheims also agrees :




    But I receive not testimony from man [D-R]




    and the Wycliffe . . and J N Darby . . . and Tyndale :




    But I take not witness from man [Wyc]



    But I do not receive witness from man [JND]



    But I receive not the record of man [Tyn]




    I can see no reason whatsoever for the 'paraphrased' versions to depart from the above.






    share|improve this answer



























      1














      Thayer has two pages on the verb λαμβανο which are headed up :




      I - to take with the hand, lay hold of



      II - to receive




      My 1,700 page Liddell & Scott (American Edition 1854), similarly has a couple of columns summed up as :




      A - to take hold of, grasp, seize



      B - to have given one, receive, get




      The KJV, Young's Literal, and the Englishman's Greek New Testament all agree :




      But I receive not testimony from man [KJV]



      But I do not receive testimony from man [YLT]



      I but not from man witness receive [EGNT literal]




      The Douay Rheims also agrees :




      But I receive not testimony from man [D-R]




      and the Wycliffe . . and J N Darby . . . and Tyndale :




      But I take not witness from man [Wyc]



      But I do not receive witness from man [JND]



      But I receive not the record of man [Tyn]




      I can see no reason whatsoever for the 'paraphrased' versions to depart from the above.






      share|improve this answer

























        1












        1








        1







        Thayer has two pages on the verb λαμβανο which are headed up :




        I - to take with the hand, lay hold of



        II - to receive




        My 1,700 page Liddell & Scott (American Edition 1854), similarly has a couple of columns summed up as :




        A - to take hold of, grasp, seize



        B - to have given one, receive, get




        The KJV, Young's Literal, and the Englishman's Greek New Testament all agree :




        But I receive not testimony from man [KJV]



        But I do not receive testimony from man [YLT]



        I but not from man witness receive [EGNT literal]




        The Douay Rheims also agrees :




        But I receive not testimony from man [D-R]




        and the Wycliffe . . and J N Darby . . . and Tyndale :




        But I take not witness from man [Wyc]



        But I do not receive witness from man [JND]



        But I receive not the record of man [Tyn]




        I can see no reason whatsoever for the 'paraphrased' versions to depart from the above.






        share|improve this answer













        Thayer has two pages on the verb λαμβανο which are headed up :




        I - to take with the hand, lay hold of



        II - to receive




        My 1,700 page Liddell & Scott (American Edition 1854), similarly has a couple of columns summed up as :




        A - to take hold of, grasp, seize



        B - to have given one, receive, get




        The KJV, Young's Literal, and the Englishman's Greek New Testament all agree :




        But I receive not testimony from man [KJV]



        But I do not receive testimony from man [YLT]



        I but not from man witness receive [EGNT literal]




        The Douay Rheims also agrees :




        But I receive not testimony from man [D-R]




        and the Wycliffe . . and J N Darby . . . and Tyndale :




        But I take not witness from man [Wyc]



        But I do not receive witness from man [JND]



        But I receive not the record of man [Tyn]




        I can see no reason whatsoever for the 'paraphrased' versions to depart from the above.







        share|improve this answer












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        answered 6 hours ago









        Nigel JNigel J

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