Stock Volatility with Uncertain ProbabilityProbability of stock closing over a certain priceVolatility for time periods with little dataCalculating the correlation of stock A with stock BUncertain volatilityImplied Volatility of a stock?Volatility Forecasting of VIXSquared returns and volatilitystock specific volatility
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Stock Volatility with Uncertain Probability
Probability of stock closing over a certain priceVolatility for time periods with little dataCalculating the correlation of stock A with stock BUncertain volatilityImplied Volatility of a stock?Volatility Forecasting of VIXSquared returns and volatilitystock specific volatility
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
$begingroup$
Suppose that the probability that determines the state of the economy is unknown. That is, you do not know whether the booms or recessions are more likely. Calculate the expected return and the volatility of the stock under the following payoff table.
I believe the expected return is 0, but how do you calculate the standard deviation? Which probability should be used for the $ P_i$? 0.5 for both or 0.25 and 0.75?
$ σ^2 = sqrtΣ(r_i-E(r))^2cdot P_i$
Edit:
Can I also confirm my solution for the final section?
"Would a typical mean-variance utility maximizer prefer the top or the bottom table? Intuitively, would you prefer the recession probability to be uncertain as in the top table?"
Since the$ E(r) and Var(r)$ are the same in both tables, the investor is indifferent towards both. However, in reality most investors would prefer the recession probability to be certain, as they are risk-averse.
volatility finance-mathematics
New contributor
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that the probability that determines the state of the economy is unknown. That is, you do not know whether the booms or recessions are more likely. Calculate the expected return and the volatility of the stock under the following payoff table.
I believe the expected return is 0, but how do you calculate the standard deviation? Which probability should be used for the $ P_i$? 0.5 for both or 0.25 and 0.75?
$ σ^2 = sqrtΣ(r_i-E(r))^2cdot P_i$
Edit:
Can I also confirm my solution for the final section?
"Would a typical mean-variance utility maximizer prefer the top or the bottom table? Intuitively, would you prefer the recession probability to be uncertain as in the top table?"
Since the$ E(r) and Var(r)$ are the same in both tables, the investor is indifferent towards both. However, in reality most investors would prefer the recession probability to be certain, as they are risk-averse.
volatility finance-mathematics
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that the probability that determines the state of the economy is unknown. That is, you do not know whether the booms or recessions are more likely. Calculate the expected return and the volatility of the stock under the following payoff table.
I believe the expected return is 0, but how do you calculate the standard deviation? Which probability should be used for the $ P_i$? 0.5 for both or 0.25 and 0.75?
$ σ^2 = sqrtΣ(r_i-E(r))^2cdot P_i$
Edit:
Can I also confirm my solution for the final section?
"Would a typical mean-variance utility maximizer prefer the top or the bottom table? Intuitively, would you prefer the recession probability to be uncertain as in the top table?"
Since the$ E(r) and Var(r)$ are the same in both tables, the investor is indifferent towards both. However, in reality most investors would prefer the recession probability to be certain, as they are risk-averse.
volatility finance-mathematics
New contributor
$endgroup$
Suppose that the probability that determines the state of the economy is unknown. That is, you do not know whether the booms or recessions are more likely. Calculate the expected return and the volatility of the stock under the following payoff table.
I believe the expected return is 0, but how do you calculate the standard deviation? Which probability should be used for the $ P_i$? 0.5 for both or 0.25 and 0.75?
$ σ^2 = sqrtΣ(r_i-E(r))^2cdot P_i$
Edit:
Can I also confirm my solution for the final section?
"Would a typical mean-variance utility maximizer prefer the top or the bottom table? Intuitively, would you prefer the recession probability to be uncertain as in the top table?"
Since the$ E(r) and Var(r)$ are the same in both tables, the investor is indifferent towards both. However, in reality most investors would prefer the recession probability to be certain, as they are risk-averse.
volatility finance-mathematics
volatility finance-mathematics
New contributor
New contributor
edited 4 hours ago
SMLJKNN
New contributor
asked 8 hours ago
SMLJKNNSMLJKNN
314 bronze badges
314 bronze badges
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2 Answers
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Seems like the total law of variance problem:
$Vleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Vleft[Y mid X right] right]+Vleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right] right]$
Mean on the other hand will be just the iterated expectation problem:
$Eleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right]right]$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This one's not too difficult. Because the p() of the boom and bust regimes are a 50:50, the vol remains 10%
Where you vary the regime probabilities, life gets only a little more complicated. You have four scenarios, as per above. The mean is the sum of the scenario probability * payoff. The variance is sum of the scenario probability * (scenario payoff - mean)^2. The sigma is the root of the variance. Simples.
Where you run into trouble is trying to calculate a vol from Markov regimes. 30% chance of -10% +/- 20% Gaussian, versus 70% chance of 5% +/- 10% Gaussian. That's what breaks the models here, when you want model the return distribution "normally" rather than approximating this as a 50:50 of +/-1 sigma.
all the best...
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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active
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votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
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votes
$begingroup$
Seems like the total law of variance problem:
$Vleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Vleft[Y mid X right] right]+Vleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right] right]$
Mean on the other hand will be just the iterated expectation problem:
$Eleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right]right]$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Seems like the total law of variance problem:
$Vleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Vleft[Y mid X right] right]+Vleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right] right]$
Mean on the other hand will be just the iterated expectation problem:
$Eleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right]right]$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Seems like the total law of variance problem:
$Vleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Vleft[Y mid X right] right]+Vleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right] right]$
Mean on the other hand will be just the iterated expectation problem:
$Eleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right]right]$
$endgroup$
Seems like the total law of variance problem:
$Vleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Vleft[Y mid X right] right]+Vleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right] right]$
Mean on the other hand will be just the iterated expectation problem:
$Eleft[Yright]=Eleft[ Eleft[Y mid X right]right]$
answered 7 hours ago
Magic is in the chainMagic is in the chain
2,8041 gold badge4 silver badges8 bronze badges
2,8041 gold badge4 silver badges8 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This one's not too difficult. Because the p() of the boom and bust regimes are a 50:50, the vol remains 10%
Where you vary the regime probabilities, life gets only a little more complicated. You have four scenarios, as per above. The mean is the sum of the scenario probability * payoff. The variance is sum of the scenario probability * (scenario payoff - mean)^2. The sigma is the root of the variance. Simples.
Where you run into trouble is trying to calculate a vol from Markov regimes. 30% chance of -10% +/- 20% Gaussian, versus 70% chance of 5% +/- 10% Gaussian. That's what breaks the models here, when you want model the return distribution "normally" rather than approximating this as a 50:50 of +/-1 sigma.
all the best...
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This one's not too difficult. Because the p() of the boom and bust regimes are a 50:50, the vol remains 10%
Where you vary the regime probabilities, life gets only a little more complicated. You have four scenarios, as per above. The mean is the sum of the scenario probability * payoff. The variance is sum of the scenario probability * (scenario payoff - mean)^2. The sigma is the root of the variance. Simples.
Where you run into trouble is trying to calculate a vol from Markov regimes. 30% chance of -10% +/- 20% Gaussian, versus 70% chance of 5% +/- 10% Gaussian. That's what breaks the models here, when you want model the return distribution "normally" rather than approximating this as a 50:50 of +/-1 sigma.
all the best...
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This one's not too difficult. Because the p() of the boom and bust regimes are a 50:50, the vol remains 10%
Where you vary the regime probabilities, life gets only a little more complicated. You have four scenarios, as per above. The mean is the sum of the scenario probability * payoff. The variance is sum of the scenario probability * (scenario payoff - mean)^2. The sigma is the root of the variance. Simples.
Where you run into trouble is trying to calculate a vol from Markov regimes. 30% chance of -10% +/- 20% Gaussian, versus 70% chance of 5% +/- 10% Gaussian. That's what breaks the models here, when you want model the return distribution "normally" rather than approximating this as a 50:50 of +/-1 sigma.
all the best...
$endgroup$
This one's not too difficult. Because the p() of the boom and bust regimes are a 50:50, the vol remains 10%
Where you vary the regime probabilities, life gets only a little more complicated. You have four scenarios, as per above. The mean is the sum of the scenario probability * payoff. The variance is sum of the scenario probability * (scenario payoff - mean)^2. The sigma is the root of the variance. Simples.
Where you run into trouble is trying to calculate a vol from Markov regimes. 30% chance of -10% +/- 20% Gaussian, versus 70% chance of 5% +/- 10% Gaussian. That's what breaks the models here, when you want model the return distribution "normally" rather than approximating this as a 50:50 of +/-1 sigma.
all the best...
answered 6 hours ago
demullydemully
4531 silver badge6 bronze badges
4531 silver badge6 bronze badges
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Hi there, really appreciate the help! However, I believe the returns for boom and bust should always be 10% and -10% respectively in this case.
$endgroup$
– SMLJKNN
4 hours ago
add a comment |
SMLJKNN is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
SMLJKNN is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
SMLJKNN is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
SMLJKNN is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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