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Functions where the sum of its partial derivatives is zero
Functions where the total derivative is zeroEnergy integral is convex for non-uniform diffusion equation in $OmegasubsetBbb R^n$How to do partial derivatives with functionsHow to take this exterior derivative of the expression $du - sum_i p_i dx_i$?Obtain function from its partial derivativesPDE with some variables absentHow to find the particular solution for Augmented Thin Plate Splines in the context of the Dual Reciprocity Boundary Element Method
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty
margin-bottom:0;
.everyonelovesstackoverflowposition:absolute;height:1px;width:1px;opacity:0;top:0;left:0;pointer-events:none;
$begingroup$
I am currently studying Calculus of Variations and have come up with this problem.
What functions $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$ satisfy $$sumlimits_ifracpartial fpartial x_i=0tag1$$ with $f$ of differentiability class $C^infty$?
It can be shown that if the total derivative is zero; that is, if $$fracdFdt=sum_ifracpartial fpartial x_icdotfracdx_idt=0$$ with $F(t)=f(x_1(t),cdots,x_n(t))$, then $f$ is constant. However, I cannot see how the same approach can be used for $(1)$.
The trivial function $f(x)=c$ satisfies $(1)$. For even $n>1$, a non-trivial solution is the function $$f(x_1,cdots,x_n)=expleft(sum_i(-1)^i+1x_iright)$$ since consecutive partial derivatives of $f$ cancel each other out. I suspect there are more solutions that invoke trigonometric expressions.
Is it possible to derive the entire family/families of functions $f$ that satisfy $(1)$?
pde
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I am currently studying Calculus of Variations and have come up with this problem.
What functions $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$ satisfy $$sumlimits_ifracpartial fpartial x_i=0tag1$$ with $f$ of differentiability class $C^infty$?
It can be shown that if the total derivative is zero; that is, if $$fracdFdt=sum_ifracpartial fpartial x_icdotfracdx_idt=0$$ with $F(t)=f(x_1(t),cdots,x_n(t))$, then $f$ is constant. However, I cannot see how the same approach can be used for $(1)$.
The trivial function $f(x)=c$ satisfies $(1)$. For even $n>1$, a non-trivial solution is the function $$f(x_1,cdots,x_n)=expleft(sum_i(-1)^i+1x_iright)$$ since consecutive partial derivatives of $f$ cancel each other out. I suspect there are more solutions that invoke trigonometric expressions.
Is it possible to derive the entire family/families of functions $f$ that satisfy $(1)$?
pde
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field
$endgroup$
– maxmilgram
Oct 16 at 9:27
3
$begingroup$
@maxmilgram Take care that we're not speaking of a vector field here as $f$ a real valued function.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Oct 16 at 9:55
1
$begingroup$
also google the transport equation
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
Oct 16 at 13:26
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I am currently studying Calculus of Variations and have come up with this problem.
What functions $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$ satisfy $$sumlimits_ifracpartial fpartial x_i=0tag1$$ with $f$ of differentiability class $C^infty$?
It can be shown that if the total derivative is zero; that is, if $$fracdFdt=sum_ifracpartial fpartial x_icdotfracdx_idt=0$$ with $F(t)=f(x_1(t),cdots,x_n(t))$, then $f$ is constant. However, I cannot see how the same approach can be used for $(1)$.
The trivial function $f(x)=c$ satisfies $(1)$. For even $n>1$, a non-trivial solution is the function $$f(x_1,cdots,x_n)=expleft(sum_i(-1)^i+1x_iright)$$ since consecutive partial derivatives of $f$ cancel each other out. I suspect there are more solutions that invoke trigonometric expressions.
Is it possible to derive the entire family/families of functions $f$ that satisfy $(1)$?
pde
$endgroup$
I am currently studying Calculus of Variations and have come up with this problem.
What functions $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$ satisfy $$sumlimits_ifracpartial fpartial x_i=0tag1$$ with $f$ of differentiability class $C^infty$?
It can be shown that if the total derivative is zero; that is, if $$fracdFdt=sum_ifracpartial fpartial x_icdotfracdx_idt=0$$ with $F(t)=f(x_1(t),cdots,x_n(t))$, then $f$ is constant. However, I cannot see how the same approach can be used for $(1)$.
The trivial function $f(x)=c$ satisfies $(1)$. For even $n>1$, a non-trivial solution is the function $$f(x_1,cdots,x_n)=expleft(sum_i(-1)^i+1x_iright)$$ since consecutive partial derivatives of $f$ cancel each other out. I suspect there are more solutions that invoke trigonometric expressions.
Is it possible to derive the entire family/families of functions $f$ that satisfy $(1)$?
pde
pde
edited Oct 16 at 13:15
Omega Krypton
1257 bronze badges
1257 bronze badges
asked Oct 16 at 9:18
TheSimpliFireTheSimpliFire
18.3k8 gold badges33 silver badges76 bronze badges
18.3k8 gold badges33 silver badges76 bronze badges
2
$begingroup$
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field
$endgroup$
– maxmilgram
Oct 16 at 9:27
3
$begingroup$
@maxmilgram Take care that we're not speaking of a vector field here as $f$ a real valued function.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Oct 16 at 9:55
1
$begingroup$
also google the transport equation
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
Oct 16 at 13:26
add a comment
|
2
$begingroup$
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field
$endgroup$
– maxmilgram
Oct 16 at 9:27
3
$begingroup$
@maxmilgram Take care that we're not speaking of a vector field here as $f$ a real valued function.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Oct 16 at 9:55
1
$begingroup$
also google the transport equation
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
Oct 16 at 13:26
2
2
$begingroup$
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field
$endgroup$
– maxmilgram
Oct 16 at 9:27
$begingroup$
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field
$endgroup$
– maxmilgram
Oct 16 at 9:27
3
3
$begingroup$
@maxmilgram Take care that we're not speaking of a vector field here as $f$ a real valued function.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Oct 16 at 9:55
$begingroup$
@maxmilgram Take care that we're not speaking of a vector field here as $f$ a real valued function.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Oct 16 at 9:55
1
1
$begingroup$
also google the transport equation
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
Oct 16 at 13:26
$begingroup$
also google the transport equation
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
Oct 16 at 13:26
add a comment
|
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Note that your equation is equivalent to
$$
(1,1,1,dots,1)cdotnabla f=0
$$
This means that $f$ is constant on lines parallel to $(1,1,1,dots,1)$; these lines are the characteristics of the partial differential equation.
Thus, we can define $f$ freely on $x_n=0$ and then
$$
f(x_1,x_2,x_3,dots,x_n)=f(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,x_3-x_n,dots,0)
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Define $$y_i:=x_i-x_n$$ for every $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$y_n:=x_n,.$$ Then, we have
$$x_i=y_i+y_n$$
for each $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$x_n=y_n,.$$ Observe that
$$fracpartialpartial y_n=sum_k=1^n,left(fracpartial x_kpartial y_nright),fracpartialpartial x_k=sum_k=1^n,fracpartialpartial x_k,.$$
Hence, the given partial differential equation is equivalent to $$fracpartial phipartial y_n(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)=0,,$$
where $$phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n):=fleft(y_1+y_n,y_2+y_n,ldots,y_n-1+y_n,y_nright),.$$ Consequently, $phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1$. In other words, there exists a smooth function $Phi:mathbbR^n-1to mathbbR$ such that
$$fleft(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n-1,x_nright)=Phileft(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,ldots,x_n-1-x_nright),.$$
We can check that such $f$ satisfies the condition. Your nontrivial example for even $n$ arises from taking
$$Phi(t_1,t_2,ldots,t_n-1):=expleft(sum_i=1^n-1,(-1)^i+1,t_iright),.$$
In general, let $alpha_1,alpha_2,ldots,alpha_ninmathbbR$ be arbitrary with $alpha_nneq 0$. Then, all differentiable functions $f:mathbbR^ntomathbbR$ that satisfy the partial differential equation
$$sum_i=1^n,alpha_i,fracpartial fpartial x_i(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=0$$
for every $x_1,x_2,ldots,x_ninmathbbR$ take the form
$$f(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=Phileft(alpha_n,x_1-alpha_1,x_n,alpha_n,x_2-alpha_2,x_n,ldots,alpha_n,x_n-1-alpha_n-1,x_nright),,$$
where $Phi:mathbbR^n-1tomathbbR$ is a differentiable function.
$endgroup$
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
Note that your equation is equivalent to
$$
(1,1,1,dots,1)cdotnabla f=0
$$
This means that $f$ is constant on lines parallel to $(1,1,1,dots,1)$; these lines are the characteristics of the partial differential equation.
Thus, we can define $f$ freely on $x_n=0$ and then
$$
f(x_1,x_2,x_3,dots,x_n)=f(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,x_3-x_n,dots,0)
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Note that your equation is equivalent to
$$
(1,1,1,dots,1)cdotnabla f=0
$$
This means that $f$ is constant on lines parallel to $(1,1,1,dots,1)$; these lines are the characteristics of the partial differential equation.
Thus, we can define $f$ freely on $x_n=0$ and then
$$
f(x_1,x_2,x_3,dots,x_n)=f(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,x_3-x_n,dots,0)
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Note that your equation is equivalent to
$$
(1,1,1,dots,1)cdotnabla f=0
$$
This means that $f$ is constant on lines parallel to $(1,1,1,dots,1)$; these lines are the characteristics of the partial differential equation.
Thus, we can define $f$ freely on $x_n=0$ and then
$$
f(x_1,x_2,x_3,dots,x_n)=f(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,x_3-x_n,dots,0)
$$
$endgroup$
Note that your equation is equivalent to
$$
(1,1,1,dots,1)cdotnabla f=0
$$
This means that $f$ is constant on lines parallel to $(1,1,1,dots,1)$; these lines are the characteristics of the partial differential equation.
Thus, we can define $f$ freely on $x_n=0$ and then
$$
f(x_1,x_2,x_3,dots,x_n)=f(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,x_3-x_n,dots,0)
$$
edited Oct 16 at 18:17
answered Oct 16 at 15:05
robjohn♦robjohn
282k29 gold badges334 silver badges665 bronze badges
282k29 gold badges334 silver badges665 bronze badges
add a comment
|
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Define $$y_i:=x_i-x_n$$ for every $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$y_n:=x_n,.$$ Then, we have
$$x_i=y_i+y_n$$
for each $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$x_n=y_n,.$$ Observe that
$$fracpartialpartial y_n=sum_k=1^n,left(fracpartial x_kpartial y_nright),fracpartialpartial x_k=sum_k=1^n,fracpartialpartial x_k,.$$
Hence, the given partial differential equation is equivalent to $$fracpartial phipartial y_n(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)=0,,$$
where $$phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n):=fleft(y_1+y_n,y_2+y_n,ldots,y_n-1+y_n,y_nright),.$$ Consequently, $phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1$. In other words, there exists a smooth function $Phi:mathbbR^n-1to mathbbR$ such that
$$fleft(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n-1,x_nright)=Phileft(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,ldots,x_n-1-x_nright),.$$
We can check that such $f$ satisfies the condition. Your nontrivial example for even $n$ arises from taking
$$Phi(t_1,t_2,ldots,t_n-1):=expleft(sum_i=1^n-1,(-1)^i+1,t_iright),.$$
In general, let $alpha_1,alpha_2,ldots,alpha_ninmathbbR$ be arbitrary with $alpha_nneq 0$. Then, all differentiable functions $f:mathbbR^ntomathbbR$ that satisfy the partial differential equation
$$sum_i=1^n,alpha_i,fracpartial fpartial x_i(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=0$$
for every $x_1,x_2,ldots,x_ninmathbbR$ take the form
$$f(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=Phileft(alpha_n,x_1-alpha_1,x_n,alpha_n,x_2-alpha_2,x_n,ldots,alpha_n,x_n-1-alpha_n-1,x_nright),,$$
where $Phi:mathbbR^n-1tomathbbR$ is a differentiable function.
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Define $$y_i:=x_i-x_n$$ for every $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$y_n:=x_n,.$$ Then, we have
$$x_i=y_i+y_n$$
for each $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$x_n=y_n,.$$ Observe that
$$fracpartialpartial y_n=sum_k=1^n,left(fracpartial x_kpartial y_nright),fracpartialpartial x_k=sum_k=1^n,fracpartialpartial x_k,.$$
Hence, the given partial differential equation is equivalent to $$fracpartial phipartial y_n(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)=0,,$$
where $$phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n):=fleft(y_1+y_n,y_2+y_n,ldots,y_n-1+y_n,y_nright),.$$ Consequently, $phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1$. In other words, there exists a smooth function $Phi:mathbbR^n-1to mathbbR$ such that
$$fleft(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n-1,x_nright)=Phileft(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,ldots,x_n-1-x_nright),.$$
We can check that such $f$ satisfies the condition. Your nontrivial example for even $n$ arises from taking
$$Phi(t_1,t_2,ldots,t_n-1):=expleft(sum_i=1^n-1,(-1)^i+1,t_iright),.$$
In general, let $alpha_1,alpha_2,ldots,alpha_ninmathbbR$ be arbitrary with $alpha_nneq 0$. Then, all differentiable functions $f:mathbbR^ntomathbbR$ that satisfy the partial differential equation
$$sum_i=1^n,alpha_i,fracpartial fpartial x_i(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=0$$
for every $x_1,x_2,ldots,x_ninmathbbR$ take the form
$$f(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=Phileft(alpha_n,x_1-alpha_1,x_n,alpha_n,x_2-alpha_2,x_n,ldots,alpha_n,x_n-1-alpha_n-1,x_nright),,$$
where $Phi:mathbbR^n-1tomathbbR$ is a differentiable function.
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Define $$y_i:=x_i-x_n$$ for every $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$y_n:=x_n,.$$ Then, we have
$$x_i=y_i+y_n$$
for each $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$x_n=y_n,.$$ Observe that
$$fracpartialpartial y_n=sum_k=1^n,left(fracpartial x_kpartial y_nright),fracpartialpartial x_k=sum_k=1^n,fracpartialpartial x_k,.$$
Hence, the given partial differential equation is equivalent to $$fracpartial phipartial y_n(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)=0,,$$
where $$phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n):=fleft(y_1+y_n,y_2+y_n,ldots,y_n-1+y_n,y_nright),.$$ Consequently, $phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1$. In other words, there exists a smooth function $Phi:mathbbR^n-1to mathbbR$ such that
$$fleft(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n-1,x_nright)=Phileft(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,ldots,x_n-1-x_nright),.$$
We can check that such $f$ satisfies the condition. Your nontrivial example for even $n$ arises from taking
$$Phi(t_1,t_2,ldots,t_n-1):=expleft(sum_i=1^n-1,(-1)^i+1,t_iright),.$$
In general, let $alpha_1,alpha_2,ldots,alpha_ninmathbbR$ be arbitrary with $alpha_nneq 0$. Then, all differentiable functions $f:mathbbR^ntomathbbR$ that satisfy the partial differential equation
$$sum_i=1^n,alpha_i,fracpartial fpartial x_i(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=0$$
for every $x_1,x_2,ldots,x_ninmathbbR$ take the form
$$f(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=Phileft(alpha_n,x_1-alpha_1,x_n,alpha_n,x_2-alpha_2,x_n,ldots,alpha_n,x_n-1-alpha_n-1,x_nright),,$$
where $Phi:mathbbR^n-1tomathbbR$ is a differentiable function.
$endgroup$
Define $$y_i:=x_i-x_n$$ for every $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$y_n:=x_n,.$$ Then, we have
$$x_i=y_i+y_n$$
for each $i=1,2,ldots,n-1$, and $$x_n=y_n,.$$ Observe that
$$fracpartialpartial y_n=sum_k=1^n,left(fracpartial x_kpartial y_nright),fracpartialpartial x_k=sum_k=1^n,fracpartialpartial x_k,.$$
Hence, the given partial differential equation is equivalent to $$fracpartial phipartial y_n(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)=0,,$$
where $$phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n):=fleft(y_1+y_n,y_2+y_n,ldots,y_n-1+y_n,y_nright),.$$ Consequently, $phi(y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1,y_n)$ is a function of $y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n-1$. In other words, there exists a smooth function $Phi:mathbbR^n-1to mathbbR$ such that
$$fleft(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n-1,x_nright)=Phileft(x_1-x_n,x_2-x_n,ldots,x_n-1-x_nright),.$$
We can check that such $f$ satisfies the condition. Your nontrivial example for even $n$ arises from taking
$$Phi(t_1,t_2,ldots,t_n-1):=expleft(sum_i=1^n-1,(-1)^i+1,t_iright),.$$
In general, let $alpha_1,alpha_2,ldots,alpha_ninmathbbR$ be arbitrary with $alpha_nneq 0$. Then, all differentiable functions $f:mathbbR^ntomathbbR$ that satisfy the partial differential equation
$$sum_i=1^n,alpha_i,fracpartial fpartial x_i(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=0$$
for every $x_1,x_2,ldots,x_ninmathbbR$ take the form
$$f(x_1,x_2,ldots,x_n)=Phileft(alpha_n,x_1-alpha_1,x_n,alpha_n,x_2-alpha_2,x_n,ldots,alpha_n,x_n-1-alpha_n-1,x_nright),,$$
where $Phi:mathbbR^n-1tomathbbR$ is a differentiable function.
edited Oct 16 at 11:53
answered Oct 16 at 10:52
BatominovskiBatominovski
36.3k3 gold badges35 silver badges95 bronze badges
36.3k3 gold badges35 silver badges95 bronze badges
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2
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en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field
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– maxmilgram
Oct 16 at 9:27
3
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@maxmilgram Take care that we're not speaking of a vector field here as $f$ a real valued function.
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– mathcounterexamples.net
Oct 16 at 9:55
1
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also google the transport equation
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– Calvin Khor
Oct 16 at 13:26