When to apply Lorentz transformations and laws of time dilations and length contractions: explanationsThe magnetic field near a charging capacitorHelp Me Gain an Intuitive Understanding of Lorentz ContractionTime dilation and the speed of light in the twin paradoxLength Contraction ConfusionWhat would a nuclear explosion look like at relativistic speeds where time dilation and length contraction become significant?Homogeneity and isotropy and derivation of the Lorentz transformationsIs proper time and proper length relative or absolute in relation to two events?Clarification of Conclusion of Length Contraction (Without Lorentz Transformations)Relativity tangential light clockReconciling Length Contraction and Lorentz Transformation Interpretations of a Special Relativity ProblemLorentz Transformation Exercise confusion

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When to apply Lorentz transformations and laws of time dilations and length contractions: explanations


The magnetic field near a charging capacitorHelp Me Gain an Intuitive Understanding of Lorentz ContractionTime dilation and the speed of light in the twin paradoxLength Contraction ConfusionWhat would a nuclear explosion look like at relativistic speeds where time dilation and length contraction become significant?Homogeneity and isotropy and derivation of the Lorentz transformationsIs proper time and proper length relative or absolute in relation to two events?Clarification of Conclusion of Length Contraction (Without Lorentz Transformations)Relativity tangential light clockReconciling Length Contraction and Lorentz Transformation Interpretations of a Special Relativity ProblemLorentz Transformation Exercise confusion






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








1












$begingroup$


In the laboratory we are observing the motion of a particle moving in the positive direction of the axis
$x$ of a frame system attached to it. At the initial moment, the particle is in the origin and in a time interval of $2,0$ ns covers a distance of $25$ cm. A spacecraft passes with velocity $v = 0,80$ c along the $x$ direction of the laboratory, in the positive direction, and from it is observed the motion of the same particle. Determine the average particle speeds in the two systems of reference. What interval of time and what distance would an observer placed on the spaceship?



Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've added the homework-and-exercises tag. In the future, please use this tag on this type of question.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crowell
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @BenCrowell Thank you very much. I sincerely do not attend this site also because of a bad appreciation of my questions. I put my soul to write them better. Can you see my previous question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/487680/…. I use the translator. If there are unclear parts you are allowed to change what you want. Also for any errors.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I am referring to the text of the exercise. I am not interested in what is going on. Rather because I have to use Lorentz's formulas instead of the classic ones of time dilation and length contraction. If my question is not clear you can edit it according to my comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith What should I write or change to make the question clearer? I use the translator.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I have edited my question. I had only copied the text with a normal font the exercise and I inserted in bold my doubt, that is, from the exercise there is some term that tells me that I must necessarily apply the transformations of Lorentz?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago

















1












$begingroup$


In the laboratory we are observing the motion of a particle moving in the positive direction of the axis
$x$ of a frame system attached to it. At the initial moment, the particle is in the origin and in a time interval of $2,0$ ns covers a distance of $25$ cm. A spacecraft passes with velocity $v = 0,80$ c along the $x$ direction of the laboratory, in the positive direction, and from it is observed the motion of the same particle. Determine the average particle speeds in the two systems of reference. What interval of time and what distance would an observer placed on the spaceship?



Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've added the homework-and-exercises tag. In the future, please use this tag on this type of question.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crowell
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @BenCrowell Thank you very much. I sincerely do not attend this site also because of a bad appreciation of my questions. I put my soul to write them better. Can you see my previous question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/487680/…. I use the translator. If there are unclear parts you are allowed to change what you want. Also for any errors.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I am referring to the text of the exercise. I am not interested in what is going on. Rather because I have to use Lorentz's formulas instead of the classic ones of time dilation and length contraction. If my question is not clear you can edit it according to my comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith What should I write or change to make the question clearer? I use the translator.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I have edited my question. I had only copied the text with a normal font the exercise and I inserted in bold my doubt, that is, from the exercise there is some term that tells me that I must necessarily apply the transformations of Lorentz?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago













1












1








1





$begingroup$


In the laboratory we are observing the motion of a particle moving in the positive direction of the axis
$x$ of a frame system attached to it. At the initial moment, the particle is in the origin and in a time interval of $2,0$ ns covers a distance of $25$ cm. A spacecraft passes with velocity $v = 0,80$ c along the $x$ direction of the laboratory, in the positive direction, and from it is observed the motion of the same particle. Determine the average particle speeds in the two systems of reference. What interval of time and what distance would an observer placed on the spaceship?



Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In the laboratory we are observing the motion of a particle moving in the positive direction of the axis
$x$ of a frame system attached to it. At the initial moment, the particle is in the origin and in a time interval of $2,0$ ns covers a distance of $25$ cm. A spacecraft passes with velocity $v = 0,80$ c along the $x$ direction of the laboratory, in the positive direction, and from it is observed the motion of the same particle. Determine the average particle speeds in the two systems of reference. What interval of time and what distance would an observer placed on the spaceship?



Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?







homework-and-exercises special-relativity lorentz-symmetry






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 7 hours ago







Sebastiano

















asked 8 hours ago









SebastianoSebastiano

3652 silver badges20 bronze badges




3652 silver badges20 bronze badges







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've added the homework-and-exercises tag. In the future, please use this tag on this type of question.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crowell
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @BenCrowell Thank you very much. I sincerely do not attend this site also because of a bad appreciation of my questions. I put my soul to write them better. Can you see my previous question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/487680/…. I use the translator. If there are unclear parts you are allowed to change what you want. Also for any errors.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I am referring to the text of the exercise. I am not interested in what is going on. Rather because I have to use Lorentz's formulas instead of the classic ones of time dilation and length contraction. If my question is not clear you can edit it according to my comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith What should I write or change to make the question clearer? I use the translator.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I have edited my question. I had only copied the text with a normal font the exercise and I inserted in bold my doubt, that is, from the exercise there is some term that tells me that I must necessarily apply the transformations of Lorentz?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've added the homework-and-exercises tag. In the future, please use this tag on this type of question.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crowell
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @BenCrowell Thank you very much. I sincerely do not attend this site also because of a bad appreciation of my questions. I put my soul to write them better. Can you see my previous question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/487680/…. I use the translator. If there are unclear parts you are allowed to change what you want. Also for any errors.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I am referring to the text of the exercise. I am not interested in what is going on. Rather because I have to use Lorentz's formulas instead of the classic ones of time dilation and length contraction. If my question is not clear you can edit it according to my comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith What should I write or change to make the question clearer? I use the translator.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @G.Smith I have edited my question. I had only copied the text with a normal font the exercise and I inserted in bold my doubt, that is, from the exercise there is some term that tells me that I must necessarily apply the transformations of Lorentz?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    7 hours ago







1




1




$begingroup$
I've added the homework-and-exercises tag. In the future, please use this tag on this type of question.
$endgroup$
– Ben Crowell
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
I've added the homework-and-exercises tag. In the future, please use this tag on this type of question.
$endgroup$
– Ben Crowell
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
@BenCrowell Thank you very much. I sincerely do not attend this site also because of a bad appreciation of my questions. I put my soul to write them better. Can you see my previous question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/487680/…. I use the translator. If there are unclear parts you are allowed to change what you want. Also for any errors.
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
@BenCrowell Thank you very much. I sincerely do not attend this site also because of a bad appreciation of my questions. I put my soul to write them better. Can you see my previous question: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/487680/…. I use the translator. If there are unclear parts you are allowed to change what you want. Also for any errors.
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
@G.Smith I am referring to the text of the exercise. I am not interested in what is going on. Rather because I have to use Lorentz's formulas instead of the classic ones of time dilation and length contraction. If my question is not clear you can edit it according to my comments.
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
@G.Smith I am referring to the text of the exercise. I am not interested in what is going on. Rather because I have to use Lorentz's formulas instead of the classic ones of time dilation and length contraction. If my question is not clear you can edit it according to my comments.
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
7 hours ago












$begingroup$
@G.Smith What should I write or change to make the question clearer? I use the translator.
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
@G.Smith What should I write or change to make the question clearer? I use the translator.
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
7 hours ago












$begingroup$
@G.Smith I have edited my question. I had only copied the text with a normal font the exercise and I inserted in bold my doubt, that is, from the exercise there is some term that tells me that I must necessarily apply the transformations of Lorentz?
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
@G.Smith I have edited my question. I had only copied the text with a normal font the exercise and I inserted in bold my doubt, that is, from the exercise there is some term that tells me that I must necessarily apply the transformations of Lorentz?
$endgroup$
– Sebastiano
7 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let distance be $D=25cm$, you are asking why we can't just use $D'=D/gamma$ (length contraction) and $t'=gamma t$ for $t=2ns$ (time dilation) so that we calculate average speed in spaceship's frame as $u'=D'/t'=u/gamma^2$ where u indicate velocity of particle in the lab frame? If it's your question then it's an easy one, intuitively speaking it's because spaceship moves in $x$ direction as well, same as particle. If spaceship were to move in y axis, you could use time dilation to conclude that speed is $u'_x=u/gamma$ but now that spaceship moves in x direction, you should consider this fact that spaceship will ascribe his speed to particle too!






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    6 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
    $endgroup$
    – Paradoxy
    6 hours ago


















2












$begingroup$


Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?




The time dilation and length contraction formulas are derived from the Lorentz transform using some specific assumptions. For time dilation the assumption is that the clock is at rest in one of the frames. For length contraction the assumptions are that the rod is at rest in one of the frames and that the length is constant.



In this problem you cannot use the length contraction or time dilation formulas because the assumptions are not met. The particle is not at rest in either the lab or rocket frames.



As an aside, I recommend that new students of relativity not use the time dilation and length contraction formulas at all. They are too easy to misapply as in this problem. Just use the Lorentz transform, it will automatically simplify when appropriate, and you will avoid misapplying them when they are not appropriate.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    Well, firstly, think of how the length contraction formula came. We used $∆t'=0$ in the inverse Lorentz transformation, right?
    Why did we did that? Because, to measure a length, you have to measure the both end at the same time. But, here the space time coordinate measured at the same time. First coordinate is measured at $t=0$, and second one is at $t=2$ ns. So length contraction is not valid here.



    I myself faced the exact same problem at the first days of my learning relativity. I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
      $endgroup$
      – Sebastiano
      6 hours ago











    • $begingroup$
      @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
      $endgroup$
      – Paradoxy
      6 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      I have vote this....and others :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Sebastiano
      6 hours ago













    Your Answer








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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Let distance be $D=25cm$, you are asking why we can't just use $D'=D/gamma$ (length contraction) and $t'=gamma t$ for $t=2ns$ (time dilation) so that we calculate average speed in spaceship's frame as $u'=D'/t'=u/gamma^2$ where u indicate velocity of particle in the lab frame? If it's your question then it's an easy one, intuitively speaking it's because spaceship moves in $x$ direction as well, same as particle. If spaceship were to move in y axis, you could use time dilation to conclude that speed is $u'_x=u/gamma$ but now that spaceship moves in x direction, you should consider this fact that spaceship will ascribe his speed to particle too!






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
      $endgroup$
      – Sebastiano
      6 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
      $endgroup$
      – Paradoxy
      6 hours ago















    1












    $begingroup$

    Let distance be $D=25cm$, you are asking why we can't just use $D'=D/gamma$ (length contraction) and $t'=gamma t$ for $t=2ns$ (time dilation) so that we calculate average speed in spaceship's frame as $u'=D'/t'=u/gamma^2$ where u indicate velocity of particle in the lab frame? If it's your question then it's an easy one, intuitively speaking it's because spaceship moves in $x$ direction as well, same as particle. If spaceship were to move in y axis, you could use time dilation to conclude that speed is $u'_x=u/gamma$ but now that spaceship moves in x direction, you should consider this fact that spaceship will ascribe his speed to particle too!






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
      $endgroup$
      – Sebastiano
      6 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
      $endgroup$
      – Paradoxy
      6 hours ago













    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Let distance be $D=25cm$, you are asking why we can't just use $D'=D/gamma$ (length contraction) and $t'=gamma t$ for $t=2ns$ (time dilation) so that we calculate average speed in spaceship's frame as $u'=D'/t'=u/gamma^2$ where u indicate velocity of particle in the lab frame? If it's your question then it's an easy one, intuitively speaking it's because spaceship moves in $x$ direction as well, same as particle. If spaceship were to move in y axis, you could use time dilation to conclude that speed is $u'_x=u/gamma$ but now that spaceship moves in x direction, you should consider this fact that spaceship will ascribe his speed to particle too!






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Let distance be $D=25cm$, you are asking why we can't just use $D'=D/gamma$ (length contraction) and $t'=gamma t$ for $t=2ns$ (time dilation) so that we calculate average speed in spaceship's frame as $u'=D'/t'=u/gamma^2$ where u indicate velocity of particle in the lab frame? If it's your question then it's an easy one, intuitively speaking it's because spaceship moves in $x$ direction as well, same as particle. If spaceship were to move in y axis, you could use time dilation to conclude that speed is $u'_x=u/gamma$ but now that spaceship moves in x direction, you should consider this fact that spaceship will ascribe his speed to particle too!







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 6 hours ago









    ParadoxyParadoxy

    2502 silver badges10 bronze badges




    2502 silver badges10 bronze badges











    • $begingroup$
      Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
      $endgroup$
      – Sebastiano
      6 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
      $endgroup$
      – Paradoxy
      6 hours ago
















    • $begingroup$
      Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
      $endgroup$
      – Sebastiano
      6 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
      $endgroup$
      – Paradoxy
      6 hours ago















    $begingroup$
    Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    6 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    Surely there is my upvote. Could you please edit your question a little clearer? If a bar is stopped in an inertial $Sigma'$ system with $v$ speed in the direction of $x$ motion, an observer placed in $Sigma'$ sees the bar moving. Here I apply the length contraction formulas with the Lorentz factor $gamma$. Why do you refer to the $y$ direction?
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastiano
    6 hours ago












    $begingroup$
    @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
    $endgroup$
    – Paradoxy
    6 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    @Sebastiano forget y direction. that was just another scenario. if we drop your typos in the comment, maybe you are asking if we were to analyse scenario in particle's frame, we would only need to use length contraction, why it cant be done in the case of spaceship too? As i said it's because we should consider the relative velocity between particle and spaceship, in the case of laboratory and particle we need not to do that because velocity of lab's frame is zero
    $endgroup$
    – Paradoxy
    6 hours ago













    2












    $begingroup$


    Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?




    The time dilation and length contraction formulas are derived from the Lorentz transform using some specific assumptions. For time dilation the assumption is that the clock is at rest in one of the frames. For length contraction the assumptions are that the rod is at rest in one of the frames and that the length is constant.



    In this problem you cannot use the length contraction or time dilation formulas because the assumptions are not met. The particle is not at rest in either the lab or rocket frames.



    As an aside, I recommend that new students of relativity not use the time dilation and length contraction formulas at all. They are too easy to misapply as in this problem. Just use the Lorentz transform, it will automatically simplify when appropriate, and you will avoid misapplying them when they are not appropriate.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$


      Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?




      The time dilation and length contraction formulas are derived from the Lorentz transform using some specific assumptions. For time dilation the assumption is that the clock is at rest in one of the frames. For length contraction the assumptions are that the rod is at rest in one of the frames and that the length is constant.



      In this problem you cannot use the length contraction or time dilation formulas because the assumptions are not met. The particle is not at rest in either the lab or rocket frames.



      As an aside, I recommend that new students of relativity not use the time dilation and length contraction formulas at all. They are too easy to misapply as in this problem. Just use the Lorentz transform, it will automatically simplify when appropriate, and you will avoid misapplying them when they are not appropriate.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$


        Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?




        The time dilation and length contraction formulas are derived from the Lorentz transform using some specific assumptions. For time dilation the assumption is that the clock is at rest in one of the frames. For length contraction the assumptions are that the rod is at rest in one of the frames and that the length is constant.



        In this problem you cannot use the length contraction or time dilation formulas because the assumptions are not met. The particle is not at rest in either the lab or rocket frames.



        As an aside, I recommend that new students of relativity not use the time dilation and length contraction formulas at all. They are too easy to misapply as in this problem. Just use the Lorentz transform, it will automatically simplify when appropriate, and you will avoid misapplying them when they are not appropriate.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$




        Why I can not to use the formulas of time expansion and length contraction and I must applicate, necessary, Lorentz transformations?




        The time dilation and length contraction formulas are derived from the Lorentz transform using some specific assumptions. For time dilation the assumption is that the clock is at rest in one of the frames. For length contraction the assumptions are that the rod is at rest in one of the frames and that the length is constant.



        In this problem you cannot use the length contraction or time dilation formulas because the assumptions are not met. The particle is not at rest in either the lab or rocket frames.



        As an aside, I recommend that new students of relativity not use the time dilation and length contraction formulas at all. They are too easy to misapply as in this problem. Just use the Lorentz transform, it will automatically simplify when appropriate, and you will avoid misapplying them when they are not appropriate.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 5 hours ago









        DaleDale

        8,0011 gold badge9 silver badges35 bronze badges




        8,0011 gold badge9 silver badges35 bronze badges





















            1












            $begingroup$

            Well, firstly, think of how the length contraction formula came. We used $∆t'=0$ in the inverse Lorentz transformation, right?
            Why did we did that? Because, to measure a length, you have to measure the both end at the same time. But, here the space time coordinate measured at the same time. First coordinate is measured at $t=0$, and second one is at $t=2$ ns. So length contraction is not valid here.



            I myself faced the exact same problem at the first days of my learning relativity. I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
              $endgroup$
              – Paradoxy
              6 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I have vote this....and others :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago















            1












            $begingroup$

            Well, firstly, think of how the length contraction formula came. We used $∆t'=0$ in the inverse Lorentz transformation, right?
            Why did we did that? Because, to measure a length, you have to measure the both end at the same time. But, here the space time coordinate measured at the same time. First coordinate is measured at $t=0$, and second one is at $t=2$ ns. So length contraction is not valid here.



            I myself faced the exact same problem at the first days of my learning relativity. I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
              $endgroup$
              – Paradoxy
              6 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I have vote this....and others :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago













            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            Well, firstly, think of how the length contraction formula came. We used $∆t'=0$ in the inverse Lorentz transformation, right?
            Why did we did that? Because, to measure a length, you have to measure the both end at the same time. But, here the space time coordinate measured at the same time. First coordinate is measured at $t=0$, and second one is at $t=2$ ns. So length contraction is not valid here.



            I myself faced the exact same problem at the first days of my learning relativity. I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Well, firstly, think of how the length contraction formula came. We used $∆t'=0$ in the inverse Lorentz transformation, right?
            Why did we did that? Because, to measure a length, you have to measure the both end at the same time. But, here the space time coordinate measured at the same time. First coordinate is measured at $t=0$, and second one is at $t=2$ ns. So length contraction is not valid here.



            I myself faced the exact same problem at the first days of my learning relativity. I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 4 hours ago









            Sebastiano

            3652 silver badges20 bronze badges




            3652 silver badges20 bronze badges










            answered 6 hours ago









            Sk ShafayatSk Shafayat

            492 bronze badges




            492 bronze badges











            • $begingroup$
              I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
              $endgroup$
              – Paradoxy
              6 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I have vote this....and others :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago
















            • $begingroup$
              I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
              $endgroup$
              – Paradoxy
              6 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I have vote this....and others :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastiano
              6 hours ago















            $begingroup$
            I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastiano
            6 hours ago





            $begingroup$
            I have not understood: I recommend you to go through the derivative of length contraction again. +1
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastiano
            6 hours ago













            $begingroup$
            @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
            $endgroup$
            – Paradoxy
            6 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @Sebastiano i think he meant "derivation of length contraction" , yeah i also recommend that.
            $endgroup$
            – Paradoxy
            6 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            I have vote this....and others :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastiano
            6 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            I have vote this....and others :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastiano
            6 hours ago

















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