Is the Malay “garam” (salt) related to the Latin “garum” (fish sauce)?Are there letters or diacritics in the IPA suitable for narrow/phonetic descriptions of the Malay final -h?Interrogatives and Copulas in MalayWhat does the prefix 'ab-' mean in the Latin verb 'abundare' ?How did the Vulgar Latin 'parabola' evolve to mean 'word'?How did the Greek 'tropos' evolve to the Latin 'tropus'?Why are the Dutch called “belanda” in Malay and Indonesian?Derivation of “glitzy” — does it have Yiddish roots?What is the etymology of “Tarim” as in “Tarim Basin” and does it relate to Tocharian?Is Old Slavonic “тесто” related to Latin “tiesta”?What is 'OE Gloss.'?
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Is the Malay “garam” (salt) related to the Latin “garum” (fish sauce)?
Are there letters or diacritics in the IPA suitable for narrow/phonetic descriptions of the Malay final -h?Interrogatives and Copulas in MalayWhat does the prefix 'ab-' mean in the Latin verb 'abundare' ?How did the Vulgar Latin 'parabola' evolve to mean 'word'?How did the Greek 'tropos' evolve to the Latin 'tropus'?Why are the Dutch called “belanda” in Malay and Indonesian?Derivation of “glitzy” — does it have Yiddish roots?What is the etymology of “Tarim” as in “Tarim Basin” and does it relate to Tocharian?Is Old Slavonic “тесто” related to Latin “tiesta”?What is 'OE Gloss.'?
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
The Malay/Indonesian word for salt garam is surprisingly similar to the Latin word for the Roman fish sauce garum.
Since garum was made from fermented salted fish, is there an etymological connection between the two words?
The book The Fisheries of the Oriental Region claims this to be a "strange coincidence" without providing any further information, and I am unable to find any other sources pertaining to this matter.
etymology latin malay
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
add a comment |
The Malay/Indonesian word for salt garam is surprisingly similar to the Latin word for the Roman fish sauce garum.
Since garum was made from fermented salted fish, is there an etymological connection between the two words?
The book The Fisheries of the Oriental Region claims this to be a "strange coincidence" without providing any further information, and I am unable to find any other sources pertaining to this matter.
etymology latin malay
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
1
I asked the question as I am interested in seeing if there are other potential linguistic routes which the authors of the book overlooked. Is this supposed to be an unwelcome type of question?
– March Ho
12 hours ago
It's probably more unwelcome than it should be due to one particular person who pesters this group with absurd etymology questions, and keeps getting new accounts to do it. The question seems okay to me as far as this type of question goes... although it's usually hard to answer anything but "it seems to be a coincidence, and these are common".
– LjL
3 hours ago
Incidentally though, people really should stop bandwagon-flagging questions under "language-specific grammar and usage questions" when they are anything but. If you think it should be closed, state a reason that makes sense. That person who keeps asking about Bible-related etymologies is not a good reason to mindlessly flag anything that seems to involve unlikely etymologies as something that it isn't.
– LjL
2 hours ago
add a comment |
The Malay/Indonesian word for salt garam is surprisingly similar to the Latin word for the Roman fish sauce garum.
Since garum was made from fermented salted fish, is there an etymological connection between the two words?
The book The Fisheries of the Oriental Region claims this to be a "strange coincidence" without providing any further information, and I am unable to find any other sources pertaining to this matter.
etymology latin malay
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
The Malay/Indonesian word for salt garam is surprisingly similar to the Latin word for the Roman fish sauce garum.
Since garum was made from fermented salted fish, is there an etymological connection between the two words?
The book The Fisheries of the Oriental Region claims this to be a "strange coincidence" without providing any further information, and I am unable to find any other sources pertaining to this matter.
etymology latin malay
etymology latin malay
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
asked 14 hours ago
March HoMarch Ho
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
1911 silver badge9 bronze badges
1
I asked the question as I am interested in seeing if there are other potential linguistic routes which the authors of the book overlooked. Is this supposed to be an unwelcome type of question?
– March Ho
12 hours ago
It's probably more unwelcome than it should be due to one particular person who pesters this group with absurd etymology questions, and keeps getting new accounts to do it. The question seems okay to me as far as this type of question goes... although it's usually hard to answer anything but "it seems to be a coincidence, and these are common".
– LjL
3 hours ago
Incidentally though, people really should stop bandwagon-flagging questions under "language-specific grammar and usage questions" when they are anything but. If you think it should be closed, state a reason that makes sense. That person who keeps asking about Bible-related etymologies is not a good reason to mindlessly flag anything that seems to involve unlikely etymologies as something that it isn't.
– LjL
2 hours ago
add a comment |
1
I asked the question as I am interested in seeing if there are other potential linguistic routes which the authors of the book overlooked. Is this supposed to be an unwelcome type of question?
– March Ho
12 hours ago
It's probably more unwelcome than it should be due to one particular person who pesters this group with absurd etymology questions, and keeps getting new accounts to do it. The question seems okay to me as far as this type of question goes... although it's usually hard to answer anything but "it seems to be a coincidence, and these are common".
– LjL
3 hours ago
Incidentally though, people really should stop bandwagon-flagging questions under "language-specific grammar and usage questions" when they are anything but. If you think it should be closed, state a reason that makes sense. That person who keeps asking about Bible-related etymologies is not a good reason to mindlessly flag anything that seems to involve unlikely etymologies as something that it isn't.
– LjL
2 hours ago
1
1
I asked the question as I am interested in seeing if there are other potential linguistic routes which the authors of the book overlooked. Is this supposed to be an unwelcome type of question?
– March Ho
12 hours ago
I asked the question as I am interested in seeing if there are other potential linguistic routes which the authors of the book overlooked. Is this supposed to be an unwelcome type of question?
– March Ho
12 hours ago
It's probably more unwelcome than it should be due to one particular person who pesters this group with absurd etymology questions, and keeps getting new accounts to do it. The question seems okay to me as far as this type of question goes... although it's usually hard to answer anything but "it seems to be a coincidence, and these are common".
– LjL
3 hours ago
It's probably more unwelcome than it should be due to one particular person who pesters this group with absurd etymology questions, and keeps getting new accounts to do it. The question seems okay to me as far as this type of question goes... although it's usually hard to answer anything but "it seems to be a coincidence, and these are common".
– LjL
3 hours ago
Incidentally though, people really should stop bandwagon-flagging questions under "language-specific grammar and usage questions" when they are anything but. If you think it should be closed, state a reason that makes sense. That person who keeps asking about Bible-related etymologies is not a good reason to mindlessly flag anything that seems to involve unlikely etymologies as something that it isn't.
– LjL
2 hours ago
Incidentally though, people really should stop bandwagon-flagging questions under "language-specific grammar and usage questions" when they are anything but. If you think it should be closed, state a reason that makes sense. That person who keeps asking about Bible-related etymologies is not a good reason to mindlessly flag anything that seems to involve unlikely etymologies as something that it isn't.
– LjL
2 hours ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
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What more is there to say? It's a coincidence, to the best of our knowledge, and statistically not an unlikely one.
Garum comes from Greek γάρος; its etymology is unknown, but the Greek word in the nominative already looks quite different from garam just by virtue of its inflection. The chances of being able to find two unrelated languages where the syllable "gar" happens to be part of words with loosely relatable meanings, but without an etymological connection, seem high.
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
add a comment |
I don't think this is really a bad question - food terms can be the sort of words that can travel readily between languages (Wanderwörter). Consider ketchup, sugar, ginger, tea.
In this case, though, the relation between L garum and May garam does seem to be a coincidence. Or at least, there is no recognized etymology which connects them that I can find.
Anecdotally, I will note that there is another word which is nearly homonymous with the others, and which also refers to a type of seasoning: Hindi गरम garam, which means "hot" and is often used in the sense of "spicy" (e.g. the popular spice blend garam masala). But this garam is said to derive < PIE *gʷʰer-, so it's likely yet another coincidence.
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
add a comment |
The Austronesian Basic Vocabulary Database indicates that the Malay term was originally garam sira 'grain of salt', and sira and similar forms are widely attested for 'salt' at proto-levels in various subgroups (Blust reconstructs *qasiʀa for Proto-Austronesian). I think this makes a Latin origin more than unlikely.
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
What more is there to say? It's a coincidence, to the best of our knowledge, and statistically not an unlikely one.
Garum comes from Greek γάρος; its etymology is unknown, but the Greek word in the nominative already looks quite different from garam just by virtue of its inflection. The chances of being able to find two unrelated languages where the syllable "gar" happens to be part of words with loosely relatable meanings, but without an etymological connection, seem high.
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
add a comment |
What more is there to say? It's a coincidence, to the best of our knowledge, and statistically not an unlikely one.
Garum comes from Greek γάρος; its etymology is unknown, but the Greek word in the nominative already looks quite different from garam just by virtue of its inflection. The chances of being able to find two unrelated languages where the syllable "gar" happens to be part of words with loosely relatable meanings, but without an etymological connection, seem high.
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
add a comment |
What more is there to say? It's a coincidence, to the best of our knowledge, and statistically not an unlikely one.
Garum comes from Greek γάρος; its etymology is unknown, but the Greek word in the nominative already looks quite different from garam just by virtue of its inflection. The chances of being able to find two unrelated languages where the syllable "gar" happens to be part of words with loosely relatable meanings, but without an etymological connection, seem high.
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
What more is there to say? It's a coincidence, to the best of our knowledge, and statistically not an unlikely one.
Garum comes from Greek γάρος; its etymology is unknown, but the Greek word in the nominative already looks quite different from garam just by virtue of its inflection. The chances of being able to find two unrelated languages where the syllable "gar" happens to be part of words with loosely relatable meanings, but without an etymological connection, seem high.
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
answered 13 hours ago
LjLLjL
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
9335 silver badges15 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
I don't think this is really a bad question - food terms can be the sort of words that can travel readily between languages (Wanderwörter). Consider ketchup, sugar, ginger, tea.
In this case, though, the relation between L garum and May garam does seem to be a coincidence. Or at least, there is no recognized etymology which connects them that I can find.
Anecdotally, I will note that there is another word which is nearly homonymous with the others, and which also refers to a type of seasoning: Hindi गरम garam, which means "hot" and is often used in the sense of "spicy" (e.g. the popular spice blend garam masala). But this garam is said to derive < PIE *gʷʰer-, so it's likely yet another coincidence.
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
add a comment |
I don't think this is really a bad question - food terms can be the sort of words that can travel readily between languages (Wanderwörter). Consider ketchup, sugar, ginger, tea.
In this case, though, the relation between L garum and May garam does seem to be a coincidence. Or at least, there is no recognized etymology which connects them that I can find.
Anecdotally, I will note that there is another word which is nearly homonymous with the others, and which also refers to a type of seasoning: Hindi गरम garam, which means "hot" and is often used in the sense of "spicy" (e.g. the popular spice blend garam masala). But this garam is said to derive < PIE *gʷʰer-, so it's likely yet another coincidence.
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
add a comment |
I don't think this is really a bad question - food terms can be the sort of words that can travel readily between languages (Wanderwörter). Consider ketchup, sugar, ginger, tea.
In this case, though, the relation between L garum and May garam does seem to be a coincidence. Or at least, there is no recognized etymology which connects them that I can find.
Anecdotally, I will note that there is another word which is nearly homonymous with the others, and which also refers to a type of seasoning: Hindi गरम garam, which means "hot" and is often used in the sense of "spicy" (e.g. the popular spice blend garam masala). But this garam is said to derive < PIE *gʷʰer-, so it's likely yet another coincidence.
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
I don't think this is really a bad question - food terms can be the sort of words that can travel readily between languages (Wanderwörter). Consider ketchup, sugar, ginger, tea.
In this case, though, the relation between L garum and May garam does seem to be a coincidence. Or at least, there is no recognized etymology which connects them that I can find.
Anecdotally, I will note that there is another word which is nearly homonymous with the others, and which also refers to a type of seasoning: Hindi गरम garam, which means "hot" and is often used in the sense of "spicy" (e.g. the popular spice blend garam masala). But this garam is said to derive < PIE *gʷʰer-, so it's likely yet another coincidence.
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
answered 8 hours ago
Mark BeadlesMark Beadles
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
5,9702 gold badges19 silver badges43 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
The Austronesian Basic Vocabulary Database indicates that the Malay term was originally garam sira 'grain of salt', and sira and similar forms are widely attested for 'salt' at proto-levels in various subgroups (Blust reconstructs *qasiʀa for Proto-Austronesian). I think this makes a Latin origin more than unlikely.
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
add a comment |
The Austronesian Basic Vocabulary Database indicates that the Malay term was originally garam sira 'grain of salt', and sira and similar forms are widely attested for 'salt' at proto-levels in various subgroups (Blust reconstructs *qasiʀa for Proto-Austronesian). I think this makes a Latin origin more than unlikely.
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
add a comment |
The Austronesian Basic Vocabulary Database indicates that the Malay term was originally garam sira 'grain of salt', and sira and similar forms are widely attested for 'salt' at proto-levels in various subgroups (Blust reconstructs *qasiʀa for Proto-Austronesian). I think this makes a Latin origin more than unlikely.
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
The Austronesian Basic Vocabulary Database indicates that the Malay term was originally garam sira 'grain of salt', and sira and similar forms are widely attested for 'salt' at proto-levels in various subgroups (Blust reconstructs *qasiʀa for Proto-Austronesian). I think this makes a Latin origin more than unlikely.
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
answered 6 hours ago
user6726user6726
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
36.9k1 gold badge24 silver badges71 bronze badges
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
add a comment |
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
But "grain" itself looks like a "g-r" type root too, and that's no coincidence, since it comes from Latin granum, again not so dissimilar from garam! The plot thickens...
– LjL
3 hours ago
add a comment |
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I asked the question as I am interested in seeing if there are other potential linguistic routes which the authors of the book overlooked. Is this supposed to be an unwelcome type of question?
– March Ho
12 hours ago
It's probably more unwelcome than it should be due to one particular person who pesters this group with absurd etymology questions, and keeps getting new accounts to do it. The question seems okay to me as far as this type of question goes... although it's usually hard to answer anything but "it seems to be a coincidence, and these are common".
– LjL
3 hours ago
Incidentally though, people really should stop bandwagon-flagging questions under "language-specific grammar and usage questions" when they are anything but. If you think it should be closed, state a reason that makes sense. That person who keeps asking about Bible-related etymologies is not a good reason to mindlessly flag anything that seems to involve unlikely etymologies as something that it isn't.
– LjL
2 hours ago